Nursing Elites

1. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

2. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?

• A. Family history of heart disease
• B. Overweight
• C. Smoking
• D. Age

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor for developing atherosclerosis. This factor is not modifiable through lifestyle changes. Studies have shown that having a first-degree relative with heart disease significantly increases the individual's risk of developing atherosclerosis. Overweight, smoking, and age are not hereditary risk factors for atherosclerosis. Overweight and smoking are lifestyle-related risk factors, while age is a non-modifiable risk factor that increases with time but is not directly inherited.

3. What is the expected date of delivery for your pregnant client when her last menstrual period was on 10/20/2016

• A. 7/7/2017
• B. 8/7/2017
• C. 6/7/2017
• D. 8/1/2017

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The expected date of delivery is calculated using Nagle's rule which is: The first day of last menstrual period - 3 months + 7 days = the estimated date of delivery

4. At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 mmHg. The client states, "My blood pressure is usually much lower."? The nurse should tell the client to:

• A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes
• B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months
• C. See the healthcare provider immediately
• D. Visit the healthcare provider within one (1) week for a BP check

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The blood pressure reading of 160/96 mmHg is moderately high, indicating hypertension. Given that the client mentions their blood pressure is usually lower, there is concern for acute complications like a stroke. Therefore, an immediate reassessment of the blood pressure within the next 15 minutes is warranted to confirm the reading and take appropriate actions if necessary. Waiting for two months (Choice B) or a week (Choice D) could pose risks of delaying intervention. Seeing the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is a good option, but in this case, the urgency is not as high as to require immediate attention at the healthcare provider's office.

5. A client is admitted to a nursing unit with a remittent fever. Which statement best describes this pattern of fever?

• A. A fever that spikes and then lowers without returning to normal
• B. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 2 days, followed by fever again
• C. A fever that lasts 2 days followed by normal temperature for 12 hours, followed by fever again
• D. A persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A remittent fever is characterized by temperature fluctuations where the fever spikes and then lowers but does not return to normal temperature. Option A best describes this pattern of fever. Option B describes a pattern of fever known as a biphasic fever, where the fever alternates between days of fever and normal temperature. Option C describes a pattern of fever that is more indicative of an intermittent fever, where the fever lasts for a specific duration followed by an interval of normal temperature. Option D does not accurately describe a remittent fever, as it suggests a persistent fever that has lasted over 24 hours, which is not specific to the remittent pattern.

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