Nursing Elites

1. A client has a right-sided chest tube with 50 cc of serosanguinous fluid in the collection chamber and air bubbles are collecting in the water seal chamber. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take at this time?

• A. Do nothing; this is a normal response
• B. Strip the tubing to remove any clots
• C. Place a clamp on the tube near the client's chest
• D. Remove the collection chamber and connect the tubing to a new device

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The water seal of a chest tube acts as a one-way valve. Air bubbles in the water seal indicate a leak between the client and the chamber. The nurse should briefly clamp the tube near the client's chest to locate the source of the leak. Once identified, the nurse should unclamp the tubing and notify the physician immediately. Choice A is incorrect because air bubbles in the water seal chamber are not a normal finding and indicate a leak. Choice B is incorrect as stripping the tubing could aggravate the issue and is not the initial appropriate action. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to locate and address the leak.

2. A 32-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her prenatal visit. The nurse gathers data about her obstetric history, which includes 3-year-old twins at home and a miscarriage 10 years ago at 12 weeks gestation. How would the nurse accurately document this information?

• A. G4 T1 P0 A1 L2
• B. G3 T1 P0 A1 L2
• C. G3 T0 P1 A1 L2
• D. G4 T0 P1 A1 L2

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is G4 T1 P0 A1 L2. This documentation accurately represents the woman's obstetric history. G4: She is currently pregnant (1), has twins (1), and had a miscarriage (1), totaling four pregnancies. T1: She has had one pregnancy that resulted in the birth of her twins at term. P0: She has not had any preterm births. A1: She had one miscarriage at 12 weeks gestation. L2: She has two living children (the twins). Therefore, the correct documentation reflects all aspects of her obstetric history as provided.

3. A patient with peripheral vascular disease is receiving discharge instructions. Which of the following information should be included?

• A. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
• B. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
• C. Avoid crossing the legs.
• D. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions prone to infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients with peripheral vascular disease should be advised to avoid crossing their legs as this can impede blood flow. Peripheral vascular disease, also known as arteriosclerosis obliterans, is primarily caused by atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis results in the gradual progression of arterial occlusion due to the formation of atheromas. Crossed legs can further restrict blood flow, exacerbating the condition. Walking barefoot should be discouraged to prevent potential injuries to the feet. Using a heating pad can lead to burns and should be avoided to prevent thermal injuries. While using antibacterial ointment for skin lesions may be beneficial, it is not the priority instruction for patients with peripheral vascular disease.

4. Which of the following is a true statement about assessing blood pressure by palpation?

• A. Only the diastolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.
• B. The palpation technique is most useful for infants and small children.
• C. Hypertension is a common condition that might need to be assessed through blood pressure palpation.
• D. Only the systolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing blood pressure by palpation, it is important to note that only the systolic blood pressure can be determined accurately using this method. Diastolic blood pressure cannot be reliably assessed through palpation. The palpation technique is particularly useful in situations where traditional blood pressure measurement methods are challenging, such as in infants, small children, or individuals with low blood pressure that is difficult to hear. Hypertension, a common condition characterized by elevated blood pressure, is typically assessed using auscultation rather than palpation. Therefore, the correct statement is that only the systolic blood pressure can be assessed through palpation.

5. A 58-year-old client is being tested for rheumatoid arthritis. Her physician orders an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). Which of the following results is most likely to be associated with arthritis?

• A. 5 mm/hr
• B. 12 mm/hr
• C. 28 mm/hr
• D. 40 mm/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures levels of inflammation in the body. Elevated ESR levels are commonly seen in autoimmune conditions like rheumatoid arthritis due to the presence of inflammation. In women over 50 years old, a normal ESR is typically below 30 mm/hr. Therefore, a result of 40 mm/hr is more indicative of arthritis in a 58-year-old individual. Choices A, B, and C are below the normal ESR range for a woman of this age and would not be as strongly associated with arthritis.

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