NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. What action by the nurse will be most effective in decreasing the spread of pertussis in a community setting?
- A. Providing supportive care to patients diagnosed with pertussis
- B. Teaching family members about the importance of careful handwashing
- C. Teaching patients about the necessity of adult pertussis immunizations
- D. Encouraging patients to complete the prescribed course of antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most effective action by the nurse to decrease the spread of pertussis in a community setting is to teach patients about the necessity of adult pertussis immunizations. The increased rate of pertussis in adults is often attributed to waning immunity after childhood immunization. Immunization is highly effective in protecting communities from infectious diseases. While teaching about handwashing is important for overall infection control, pertussis is primarily spread through respiratory droplets and contact with secretions. Providing supportive care does not significantly impact the disease course or transmission risk. Encouraging completion of antibiotics may help reduce transmission, but patients likely have already spread the disease by the time the diagnosis is made. Therefore, the emphasis should be on prevention through immunization to reduce the spread of pertussis.
2. When should discharge training and planning begin for a 65-year-old man admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery?
- A. Following surgery
- B. Upon admission
- C. Within 48 hours of discharge
- D. Preoperative discussion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Discharge training and planning should begin upon admission for a patient undergoing spinal stenosis surgery. It is crucial to initiate this process early to ensure a smooth transition from hospital care to home or a rehabilitation facility. Starting discharge planning upon admission allows for comprehensive involvement of the patient, family, and healthcare team, which can reduce the risk of readmission, optimize recovery, ensure proper medication management, and adequately prepare caregivers. Therefore, option B, 'Upon admission,' is the correct answer. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting until after surgery, within 48 hours of discharge, or during preoperative discussion would not provide sufficient time for effective discharge planning and education.
3. Select the age group that is coupled with an infectious disease that is most common in this age group.
- A. Infants: High bilirubin
- B. Pre-School and School Age Children: Shingles
- C. Young Adults and Teenagers: Sexually transmitted diseases
- D. The Elderly: Malaria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Young adults and teenagers are at the highest risk for sexually transmitted diseases due to their sexual activity. High bilirubin is a laboratory finding related to jaundice and not an infectious disease. Shingles is more common in the elderly population, not in pre-school and school-age children. Malaria is not most common in the elderly; it is prevalent in regions with specific mosquito vectors. Therefore, the correct answer is that young adults and teenagers are most commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases.
4. Mrs. G is seen for follow-up after testing for chronically high blood glucose levels. Her physician diagnoses her with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following information is part of this client's education about this condition?
- A. Type 1 diabetes occurs due to increased carbohydrate intake and lack of exercise
- B. Type 1 diabetes is managed through diet and exercise
- C. Type 1 diabetes is caused by destruction of beta cells in the pancreas
- D. Type 1 diabetes leads to the body's cells rejecting insulin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys the beta cells in the pancreas, leading to a lack of insulin production. Insulin is essential for regulating blood glucose levels and enabling cells to use glucose for energy. Understanding that type 1 diabetes results from the destruction of beta cells helps patients comprehend the need for insulin replacement therapy. Choices A and B are incorrect as type 1 diabetes is not primarily caused by diet or exercise habits. Choice D is incorrect because type 1 diabetes is not about the body's cells rejecting insulin but rather the lack of insulin production due to beta cell destruction.
5. Your patient has been diagnosed with a left ankle sprain. On the discharge instructions, the physician has prescribed the RICE protocol. This acronym stands for:
- A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation
- B. Radiology, Ice, Compression, Elevation
- C. Rest, Ice, Cast, Elevation
- D. Radiology, Ice, Cast, Elevation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. This acronym, RICE, is commonly used for the treatment of injuries like an ankle sprain. Rest allows the injured area to heal, Ice helps reduce swelling and pain (20 minutes on each hour while awake), Compression is usually achieved with an elastic bandage to minimize swelling, and Elevation of the foot above the level of the heart assists in reducing swelling and promoting healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they include irrelevant terms like Radiology and Cast, which are not part of the standard treatment protocol for an ankle sprain.
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