NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?
- A. Reports of frothy stools and diarrhea
- B. Reports of foul-smelling ribbon stools
- C. Reports of profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting
- D. Reports of diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.
2. A nurse caring for several patients in the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
- A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
- B. A postoperative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
- C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
- D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes. An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator is used to deliver an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. These patients are at high risk of life-threatening arrhythmias, which may result in syncope. Patients with atrial tachycardia and fatigue (Choice D) would not typically require an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator as their primary issue is related to atrial arrhythmias. Patients who have had a myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage (Choice A) or postoperative coronary bypass patients recovering on schedule (Choice B) are not necessarily at high risk for ventricular arrhythmias and would not be the primary candidates for an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator.
3. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?
- A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
- B. A high WBC count and manic activity
- C. A low WBC count and manic activity
- D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.
4. Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct? Select the one that doesn't apply:
- A. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply.
- B. It is characterized by pain that often occurs during rest.
- C. It is a result of tissue hypoxia.
- D. It is characterized by cramping and weakness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Claudication is a symptom of peripheral vascular disease where there is an inadequate supply of oxygen to the muscles due to reduced blood flow. This mismatch between oxygen demand and supply leads to tissue hypoxia, resulting in cramping, weakness, and discomfort. Option D correctly states that claudication is characterized by cramping and weakness, making it the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are incorrect. Claudication occurs when oxygen demand exceeds supply, not the other way around as stated in Option A. Pain in claudication typically occurs with activity, not at rest as mentioned in Option B. While tissue hypoxia is a consequence of claudication, it is not the primary cause, making Option C incorrect.
5. Which of the following medications taken by the patient is least likely to cause urine discoloration?
- A. Sulfasalazine
- B. Levodopa
- C. Phenolphthalein
- D. Aspirin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Aspirin. Aspirin is not known to cause urine discoloration. Sulfasalazine is associated with causing orange-yellow discoloration of urine. Levodopa can cause darkening of urine to a brown or black color. Phenolphthalein has been linked to pink or red discoloration of urine. Therefore, among the options provided, Aspirin is the medication least likely to cause urine discoloration.
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