NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The clinic nurse is obtaining data about a child with a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. Which data should the nurse expect to obtain on assessment?
- A. Reports of frothy stools and diarrhea
- B. Reports of foul-smelling ribbon stools
- C. Reports of profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting
- D. Reports of diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lactose intolerance commonly presents with frothy stools and diarrhea due to the inability to digest lactose. Other symptoms include abdominal distension, crampy abdominal pain, and excessive flatus. Foul-smelling ribbon stools are indicative of Hirschsprung's disease, not lactose intolerance. Profuse, watery diarrhea and vomiting are more characteristic of celiac disease. Diffuse abdominal pain unrelated to meals or activity is a typical symptom of irritable bowel syndrome, not lactose intolerance.
2. A 49-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) is to begin treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching?
- A. Recommendation to drink at least 4 L of fluid daily
- B. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery
- C. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication
- D. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When initiating treatment with glatiramer acetate (Copaxone), patient education should focus on teaching the patient how to draw up and administer injections of the medication. Copaxone is administered via self-injection, hence understanding the correct technique is crucial for successful treatment. Recommendations regarding fluid intake or the need to avoid driving heavy machinery are not directly related to glatiramer acetate therapy. Additionally, while discussing contraceptive methods may be important, the use of oral contraceptives does not specifically contraindicate the use of glatiramer acetate.
3. A patient is undergoing a stress test on a treadmill and turns to talk to the nurse. Which of these statements would require the most immediate intervention?
- A. I'm feeling extremely thirsty and will get some water after this.
- B. I can feel my heart racing.
- C. My shoulder and arm are hurting.
- D. My blood pressure reading is 158/80
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: My shoulder and arm are hurting.' Unilateral arm and shoulder pain are classic symptoms of myocardial ischemia, indicating possible heart issues. In this scenario, immediate intervention is required, and the stress test should be halted. Choice A about feeling thirsty does not indicate an acute medical issue. Choice B mentioning heart racing is expected during a stress test. Choice D, a blood pressure reading of 158/80, while slightly elevated, does not present an immediate concern compared to the symptoms of arm and shoulder pain suggesting cardiac distress.
4. A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?
- A. Bowel sounds are present.
- B. Grey Turner sign resolves.
- C. Electrolyte levels are normal.
- D. Abdominal pain is decreased.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain. Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.
5. The nurse is caring for a woman 2 hours after a vaginal delivery. Documentation indicates that the membranes were ruptured for 36 hours prior to delivery. What are the priority nursing diagnoses at this time?
- A. Altered tissue perfusion
- B. Risk for fluid volume deficit
- C. High risk for hemorrhage
- D. Risk for infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Risk for infection.' When the membranes are ruptured for more than 24 hours prior to birth, there is a significantly increased risk of infection for both the mother and the newborn. Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever, foul-smelling vaginal discharge, and uterine tenderness, is crucial. Option A, 'Altered tissue perfusion,' is not the priority in this scenario as infection risk takes precedence due to the prolonged rupture of membranes. Option B, 'Risk for fluid volume deficit,' is less of a priority compared to the immediate risk of infection. Option C, 'High risk for hemorrhage,' is not the priority concern at this time based on the information provided.
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