Nursing Elites

1. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

2. A nursing student caring for a 6-month-old infant is asked to collect a sample for urinalysis from the infant. How should the student collect the specimen?

• A. Catheterizing the infant using the smallest available Foley catheter
• B. Attaching a urinary collection device to the infant's perineum for collection
• C. Obtaining the specimen from the diaper by squeezing the diaper after the infant voids
• D. Noting the time of the next expected voiding and then preparing a specimen cup for the urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct method for collecting a urine sample from an infant for urinalysis is by attaching a urinary collection device to the infant's perineum. This device is a plastic bag with an adhesive opening that allows it to be secured to the perineum to collect urine. Catheterizing the infant with a Foley catheter should not be done unless specifically prescribed due to the risk of infection. Obtaining the specimen from the diaper by squeezing it after the infant voids may not provide an accurate sample for urinalysis. Trying to predict the time of the next voiding to prepare a specimen cup is not practical or reliable in ensuring an appropriate sample for urinalysis.

3. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilms tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?

• A. The tumor is less than 3 cm in size and requires no chemotherapy.
• B. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
• C. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
• D. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Wilms tumor staging, stage II indicates that the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected. This means that the tumor has spread beyond the kidney but has been successfully removed. Choices A and B are incorrect because a tumor less than 3 cm in size and a tumor that did not extend beyond the kidney do not align with the characteristics of stage II Wilms tumor. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes a more advanced stage where the tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be completely resected. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it accurately reflects the characteristics of a stage II Wilms tumor.

4. Which of the following can cause coup-contrecoup injuries?

• A. Rotational forces
• B. Deformation forces
• C. Deceleration forces
• D. Acceleration forces

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Deceleration forces occur when the head is moving and abruptly comes to a stop, such as in a car crash. This sudden deceleration can cause the brain to hit against the skull, resulting in coup-contrecoup injuries. In a coup-contrecoup injury, the brain is damaged on opposite sides due to the initial impact and the rebound effect inside the skull. Rotational forces usually result in diffuse axonal injuries rather than coup-contrecoup injuries. Deformation forces can cause focal brain injuries but not coup-contrecoup injuries. Acceleration forces typically lead to diffuse brain injuries, not coup-contrecoup injuries. Therefore, the correct answer is deceleration forces.

5. When assessing the respiratory system of an older patient, which finding indicates that the nurse should take immediate action?

• A. Weak cough effort
• B. Barrel-shaped chest
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Bilateral crackles at lung bases

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilateral crackles at lung bases indicate a potential acute issue like heart failure. Immediate action is necessary in this situation. The nurse should conduct further assessments such as oxygen saturation and inform the healthcare provider promptly. A barrel-shaped chest and hyperresonance to percussion are typical signs of aging and do not require immediate action. A weak cough effort is common in older patients due to age-related changes, and dry mucous membranes are also expected in older individuals. While these findings may warrant further evaluation, they do not demand immediate action like bilateral crackles at lung bases.

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