Nursing Elites

1. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:

• A. Hypovolemic shock
• B. Cardiogenic shock
• C. Distributive shock
• D. Obstructive shock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.

2. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to

• A. A cerebral vascular accident
• B. Postoperative meningitis
• C. Medication reaction
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.

3. A 4-year-old hospitalized child begins to have a seizure while playing with hard plastic toys in the hallway. Of the following nursing actions, which one should the nurse do first?

• A. Place the child in the nearest bed
• B. Administer IV medication to slow down the seizure
• C. Place a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth
• D. Remove the child's toys from the immediate area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority nursing actions are to ensure the safety of the child and maintain airway patency. Placing objects in the child's mouth, like a padded tongue blade, is not recommended as it can lead to injury or obstruction of the airway. Moving the child to a bed is also not the immediate priority during a seizure. Administering IV medication to slow down the seizure is not typically done as the initial action. Therefore, the correct first nursing action is to remove any potential hazards, such as the hard plastic toys, from the immediate area to prevent injury during the seizure.

4. A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is

• A. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery.
• B. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator.
• C. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow.
• D. Non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) is a procedure that involves compressing plaque against the wall of a diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow. It is a minimally invasive procedure performed during a cardiac catheterization to open blockages in the coronary arteries. Surgical repair of a diseased coronary artery refers to procedures like coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), not PTCA. Placement of an automatic internal cardiac defibrillator is a different intervention used for managing cardiac arrhythmias, not for improving coronary blood flow. A non-invasive radiographic examination of the heart would typically refer to procedures like a cardiac CT scan or an MRI, not PTCA.

5. When admitting a 64-year-old patient with acute pancreatitis, the healthcare provider should specifically inquire about a history of

• A. diabetes mellitus.
• B. high-protein diet.
• C. cigarette smoking.
• D. alcohol consumption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with acute pancreatitis, alcohol consumption is a significant risk factor and one of the most common causes in the United States. It is crucial to assess alcohol intake as it plays a key role in the development of pancreatitis. While cigarette smoking, diabetes mellitus, and high-protein diets can contribute to various health issues, they are not directly associated with the development of acute pancreatitis.

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