NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all categorized as:
- A. Hypovolemic shock
- B. Cardiogenic shock
- C. Distributive shock
- D. Obstructive shock
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock are all types of distributive shock. Distributive shock is characterized by a decrease in systemic vascular resistance, leading to poor tissue perfusion. Septic shock is caused by severe infection, anaphylactic shock is an extreme allergic reaction, and neurogenic shock results from damage to the nervous system. Hypovolemic shock (Choice A) is characterized by a decrease in intravascular volume, cardiogenic shock (Choice B) is due to heart failure, and obstructive shock (Choice D) results from obstruction of blood flow. Therefore, the correct categorization for septic, anaphylactic, and neurogenic shock is distributive shock.
2. The pediatric nurse caring for a 3-year-old child with cerebral palsy (CP) prepares a home care teaching plan for the caregivers on discharge. Which items will the nurse include in the teaching plan? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Apply splints and braces to facilitate muscle control.
- B. Buy toys that are appropriate for the child's abilities.
- C. Encourage the child to perform self-care tasks.
- D. Use skeletal muscle relaxants for short-term control.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When developing a discharge teaching plan for a child with cerebral palsy (CP), the nurse should focus on strategies to enhance the child's independence and functional abilities. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions to include in the teaching plan for a child with CP. Applying splints and braces can help facilitate muscle control and improve body functioning. Buying toys that are appropriate for the child's abilities can promote engagement and development. Encouraging the child to perform self-care tasks fosters independence and skill development. However, the use of skeletal muscle relaxants for short-term control is not typically a part of routine care for pediatric patients with CP. These medications are usually reserved for specific situations and are not a standard component of home care teaching plans for children with CP.
3. A client comes to the clinic for treatment of recurrent pelvic inflammatory disease. The nurse recognizes that this condition most frequently follows which type of infection?
- A. Trichomoniasis
- B. Chlamydia
- C. Staphylococcus
- D. Streptococcus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chlamydial infections are one of the most common causes of salpingitis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Chlamydia can ascend from the vagina or cervix to the reproductive organs, leading to inflammation and infection. Trichomoniasis, caused by a parasite, typically presents with different symptoms than pelvic inflammatory disease and is not the primary cause. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus are bacteria that can cause other types of infections but are not the primary culprits in most cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.
4. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?
- A. Dry dressing
- B. Transparent dressing
- C. Composite dressing
- D. Wet to dry dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.
5. After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, what is a priority nursing consideration for a patient in the day surgery center?
- A. Raise the siderails of the patient's bed
- B. Do not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake
- C. Check the temperature of the patient
- D. Teach the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After an endoscopic procedure with general anesthesia, the priority nursing consideration is to not offer fluids, food, or any oral intake to the patient. Endoscopies involve passing a tube through the mouth into the esophagus or upper GI. Anesthesia is often given to inactivate the gag reflex, making the patient vulnerable to aspiration. Raising the siderails of the patient's bed is important for safety but not the immediate priority. Checking the patient's temperature may be important but is not the priority immediately after the procedure. Teaching the patient to avoid aspirin or NSAIDS is important for post-procedure care but is not the priority immediately after the endoscopic procedure.
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