NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. A client with Multiple Sclerosis reports a constant, burning, tingling pain in the shoulders. The nurse anticipates that the physician will order which medication for this type of pain?
- A. alprazolam (Xanax)
- B. Corticosteroid injection
- C. gabapentin (Neurontin)
- D. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For neuropathic pain associated with conditions like Multiple Sclerosis, medications like gabapentin, an anticonvulsant, are commonly used. Gabapentin helps in managing nerve pain by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain and nervous system. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not primarily indicated for neuropathic pain. Corticosteroid injections are more suitable for inflammatory conditions like arthritis, not for neuropathic pain. Hydrocodone/acetaminophen is an opioid combination used for moderate to severe pain, but it is not the first-line choice for neuropathic pain.
2. The nurse is performing tuberculosis (TB) skin tests in a clinic that has many patients who have immigrated to the United States. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask before the skin test?
- A. Is there any family history of TB?
- B. How long have you lived in the United States?
- C. Do you take any over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
- D. Have you received the bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine for TB?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about whether the patient has received the bacille Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccine for TB before performing the skin test. Patients who have received the BCG vaccine can have a positive Mantoux test, leading to the need for alternative screening methods, such as a chest x-ray, to determine TB infection. While family history of TB and length of time in the United States are relevant factors, they do not directly impact the decision to perform the TB skin test. Asking about over-the-counter medications, unless relevant to TB treatment, is not as critical as assessing BCG vaccination status.
3. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. A bruit near the epigastric area
- C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
- D. Blood pressure of 160/90
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.
4. While working with an obese adolescent, it is important for the nurse to recognize that obesity in adolescents is most often associated with what other behavior?
- A. Sexual promiscuity
- B. Poor body image
- C. Dropping out of school
- D. Drug experimentation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When addressing obesity in adolescents, it is crucial to consider that poor body image is a common behavior associated with obesity. As adolescents gain weight, they may experience a decrease in self-esteem and a negative perception of their body. This can contribute to a cycle of unhealthy behaviors and impact their overall well-being. The other choices are less commonly associated with obesity in adolescents. Sexual promiscuity may be influenced by various factors unrelated to obesity, dropping out of school is more often linked to academic challenges or social issues, and drug experimentation can stem from a range of influences but is not directly correlated with obesity.
5. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?
- A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
- B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
- C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
- D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.
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