NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Review Answers
1. In educating clients on ways to manage pain, which topic can be appropriately delegated to an LPN/LVN who will continue under supervision?
- A. Acupuncture
- B. Guided Imagery
- C. Alternating Rest/Activity
- D. Over-the-counter medications
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Alternating Rest/Activity.' This topic falls within the nursing scope of practice and is typically covered in the training and education of all nurses, including LPN/LVNs. Educating clients on alternating rest and activity is safe, straightforward, and a standard non-pharmacological pain management strategy. Acupuncture (Choice A) and Guided Imagery (Choice B) involve specific skills and techniques that are typically outside the scope of practice for LPN/LVNs. Over-the-counter medications (Choice D) may require additional assessment, monitoring, and considerations that are beyond the usual delegation for LPN/LVNs.
2. A patient is being visited at home by a healthcare professional. The patient has been taking Naproxen for back pain. Which statement made by the patient most indicates that the healthcare professional needs to contact the physician?
- A. I get an upset stomach if I don't take Naproxen with my meals.
- B. My back pain right now is about a 3/10.
- C. I get occasional headaches since taking Naproxen
- D. I have ringing in my ears.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'I have ringing in my ears.' Ringing in the ears is a severe adverse effect of Naproxen, indicating potential toxicity. This symptom warrants immediate medical attention. Choices A, B, and C are less concerning and do not directly indicate a severe adverse effect or toxicity related to Naproxen. Upset stomach, mild back pain, and occasional headaches are common side effects that may not require immediate physician contact.
3. A 45-year-old woman is prescribed ropinirole (Requip) for Parkinson's Disease. The patient is living at home with her daughter. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of ropinirole?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Sudden dizziness
- C. Mask-like facial expression
- D. Stooped posture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Sudden dizziness.' Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension are serious adverse effects of ropinirole that can lead to an increased risk of falls. Ropinirole belongs to the drug class of dopamine agonists, which mimic dopamine in the brain (Parkinson's Disease is characterized by a lack of dopamine). 'Slurred speech' is not a common side effect of ropinirole. 'Mask-like facial expression' and 'Stooped posture' are more associated with the progression of Parkinson's Disease itself rather than a side effect of ropinirole.
4. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
- A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
- B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
- C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
- D. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.
5. After repair of an inguinal hernia, the infant is being cared for. Which assessment finding indicates that the surgical repair was effective?
- A. A clean, dry incision
- B. Abdominal distension
- C. An adequate flow of urine
- D. Absence of inguinal swelling with crying
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The absence of inguinal swelling when the infant cries or strains indicates that the surgical repair of the inguinal hernia was effective. Inguinal swelling typically occurs with crying or straining in cases of this condition. A clean, dry incision signifies the absence of wound infection post-surgery but does not directly indicate the effectiveness of the hernia repair. Abdominal distension suggests a gastrointestinal issue unrelated to the hernia repair. An adequate flow of urine is not specific to evaluating the success of inguinal hernia repair.
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