Nursing Elites

1. When are manual hematocrits done?

• A. to monitor anemia
• B. by using a microhematocrit tube.
• C. to measure the percentage of plasma to cells.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Manual hematocrits are performed to monitor anemia, which involves measuring the percentage of red blood cells in the blood. The process involves collecting blood in a microhematocrit tube, then centrifuging it to separate the plasma from the cells. By measuring the ratio of plasma to cells, healthcare providers can assess the patient's hematocrit level. Therefore, all the provided options are correct as they collectively describe the purpose and procedure of manual hematocrits.

2. A client has become combative and is attempting to pull out his IV and take off his surgical dressings. The nurse receives an order to apply wrist restraints. Which action of the nurse signifies that restraints are being used safely?

• A. The nurse ties the restraints in a square knot to prevent the client from untying them
• B. The restraints are attached to a movable portion of the bed
• C. The padded side of the restraint is applied next to the skin of the wrist
• D. The nurse assesses the client's distal circulation every 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraint use must prioritize the safety of the client. When applying restraints around the wrists, the padded side should be placed against the skin to help prevent skin breakdown. Additionally, restraints should be secured in quick-release knots to ensure they can be removed rapidly in case of an emergency. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be tied in a way that could prevent quick removal. Choice B is incorrect because restraints should not be attached to a movable part of the bed to avoid unintentional movement. Choice D is incorrect as assessing distal circulation is important but is not directly related to the safe application of restraints.

3. A resident brings several electronic devices to a nursing home. One of the devices has a two-pronged plug. What rationale should the nurse provide when explaining why an electrical device must have a three-pronged plug?

• A. Controls stray electrical currents.
• B. Promotes efficient use of electricity.
• C. Shuts off the appliance if there is an electrical surge.
• D. Divides the electricity among the appliances in the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-pronged plug functions as a ground to dissipate stray electrical currents. This helps prevent electrical shocks and ensures the safety of the user. Choice B is incorrect because the number of prongs on a plug does not impact the efficient use of electricity. Choice C is incorrect because a three-pronged plug does not shut off the appliance during an electrical surge; that role is typically fulfilled by surge protectors. Choice D is incorrect as a three-pronged plug does not divide electricity among appliances in a room; it primarily serves as a safety measure to handle excess electrical currents.

4. Which vacutainer tubes should be used when a requisition calls for blood to be drawn for an H&H and glucose test?

• A. One light blue, one red
• B. Two lavenders
• C. One lavender, one grey
• D. One green, one red

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One green, one red.' An H&H test involves hemoglobin and hematocrit, which are components of a complete blood count and are typically drawn in a lavender tube. On the other hand, blood for glucose testing is collected in grey tubes. Therefore, when drawing blood for both an H&H and glucose test, one green tube for glucose and one red tube for H&H should be used. The other choices are incorrect because light blue tubes are used for coagulation studies, lavender tubes are for complete blood counts, and green tubes are for chemistry tests like glucose, while grey tubes are specifically for glucose testing.

5. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 3-year-old patient who appears to have an irregular respiratory pattern. How would the nurse assess this child's respirations?

• A. Respirations should be counted for 1 full minute.
• B. Child's pulse and respirations should be simultaneously checked for 30 seconds and then multiplied by 2.
• C. Child's respirations should be checked for a minimum of 5 minutes to identify any variations in his or her respiratory pattern.
• D. Patient's respirations should be counted for 15 seconds and then multiplied by 4.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a child's respiratory pattern, the nurse should count respirations for a full minute. This duration provides a comprehensive view of the child's breathing pattern, ensuring abnormalities are not missed. Counting for only 30 seconds may not capture irregularities effectively. Checking respirations for 5 minutes is excessive and unnecessary for a routine assessment. Counting for 15 seconds and multiplying by 4 is not as precise as a full-minute count. Pulse and respirations should not be checked simultaneously; instead, the nurse should count respirations unobtrusively while appearing to take the child's pulse. Therefore, the correct approach is to count the child's respirations for 1 full minute to obtain an accurate assessment.

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