a urine pregnancy test

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. A urine pregnancy test:

A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

2. Surgical asepsis is being performed when:

A. wiping down exam tables with bleach
B. sterilizing instruments
C. changing table paper
D. wearing gloves when performing injections

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Surgical asepsis refers to the process of maintaining a sterile environment to prevent the introduction of pathogens to a patient's body. Sterilizing instruments is a crucial aspect of surgical asepsis as it ensures that the instruments used during procedures are free from microorganisms that could cause infections. Wiping down exam tables with bleach may help in cleaning and disinfecting surfaces but does not pertain directly to maintaining a sterile field. Changing table paper is important for cleanliness and infection control but is not specifically related to surgical asepsis. Wearing gloves when performing injections is important for standard precautions and preventing the spread of infection but does not encompass the concept of surgical asepsis, which focuses on maintaining a sterile field during invasive procedures.

3. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

A. Retractions
B. Elongated expiratory phase
C. Stridor
D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

4. When dismissing a 5-year-old boy from the pediatrics unit, what type of seat belt restraint should the child wear as the parents drive the car to the front door of the hospital?

A. A 5-point restraint in the back seat, facing backward
B. A booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat
C. A lap belt in the back seat
D. A lap and shoulder belt in the front seat

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 5-year-old child riding in a car should use a restraint system for safety. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommend that children under 13 years should not ride in the front seat of a car due to safety concerns. For a 5-year-old child, a booster seat with a lap and shoulder belt in the back seat is the most appropriate choice. This setup ensures proper protection and restraint for the child's size and age. Choice A is incorrect because a 5-point restraint system facing backward is not suitable for a 5-year-old child in a car. Choice C is incorrect as a lap belt alone does not provide adequate protection for a child of this age. Choice D is incorrect as children should not be seated in the front seat, especially at this young age.

5. When assessing a patient's pulse, which of the following characteristics would the nurse also notice?

A. Force
B. Pallor
C. Capillary refill time
D. Timing in the cardiac cycle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse should observe characteristics such as rate, rhythm, and force. Force refers to the strength or amplitude of the pulse, which provides important information about cardiac output. Pallor is the paleness of the skin and is not directly related to pulse assessment. Capillary refill time is used to assess peripheral perfusion and is not specifically part of pulse assessment. Timing in the cardiac cycle is a broader concept and not a characteristic directly assessed during a pulse examination. Therefore, choice A, 'Force,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the standard parameters evaluated during pulse assessment.