a urine pregnancy test
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. A urine pregnancy test:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

2. A small fire has erupted in a wastebasket in the client waiting room. Which of the following is the first action of the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a fire starts in a healthcare setting, the first action of the nurse is to move clients and anyone who may be in danger to a safe location. Ensuring the safety of clients is the top priority during emergencies. While using a fire extinguisher could be a subsequent step to contain the fire, the immediate focus should be on evacuating individuals from harm's way. Calling 9-1-1 is important, but moving clients to safety should be the nurse's initial response. Throwing water on the fire may not be effective or safe, as it can exacerbate some types of fires.

3. The nursing diagnosis is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility and pressure secondary to pain and presence of a cast. Which of the following desired outcomes should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct desired outcome for a nursing diagnosis of 'Risk for impaired skin integrity' is to ensure that the skin remains intact and without redness during the hospital stay. This outcome directly addresses the risk identified in the diagnosis. Option A focuses on addressing immobility, which is not the priority for this diagnosis. Option C deals with pain relief, which is a separate concern. Option D is an intervention involving pressure prevention through repositioning, rather than an outcome related to skin integrity.

4. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

5. Which practice will help reduce the risk of a needlestick injury?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce the risk of a needlestick injury, it is essential to keep a sharps container nearby where it can be easily accessed. This practice ensures quick and safe disposal of needles after use, minimizing the chances of accidental needlesticks. Recapping needles should be avoided as it increases the risk of injuries. Passing needles between workers should also be avoided to prevent accidental needle pricks during handovers. Therefore, the best practice to prevent needlestick injuries is to maintain a sharps container nearby for safe and immediate disposal of needles.

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