Nursing Elites

1. A urine pregnancy test:

• A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive.
• B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A urine pregnancy test detects HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine. Choice A is correct because urine pregnancy tests may be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive due to the differences in HCG levels in blood and urine. Choice B is incorrect because a urine pregnancy test can be positive throughout pregnancy, not just in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect because LH (luteinizing hormone) is not the hormone detected in a pregnancy test; it is HCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Choice D is incorrect because not all the statements provided are true.

2. A client is post-op day #1 after a hemilaminectomy. The nurse removes the dressing as ordered and notes that the incision appears slightly red, with a small amount of serous drainage coming from the site. The edges of the incision are approximated. What is the next action of the nurse?

• A. Assist the client to shower as ordered and monitor the site for further changes
• B. Instruct the client to lie prone to allow the site to dry
• C. Place antibiotic ointment and a sterile dressing over the site
• D. Notify the physician for an antibiotic order

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An incision that appears slightly red with a small amount of serous drainage on the first day following surgery is going through a normal healing process. It is important to keep the incision clean. In this case, the nurse should assist the client to shower as ordered to maintain hygiene and monitor for changes in the incision site. Instructing the client to lie prone may not be necessary and could cause discomfort. Applying antibiotic ointment without a specific order is not recommended as it can interfere with the healing process. Notifying the physician for an antibiotic order is premature at this stage since the incision is showing normal signs of healing.

3. When is the best time for the nurse to attempt to elicit the Moro reflex during an infant examination?

• A. When the infant is sleeping
• B. At the end of the examination
• C. Before auscultation of the thorax
• D. At about the middle of the examination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is best elicited at the end of the examination because it can cause the infant to cry. This reflex is triggered by a sudden change in position or loud noise, and it involves the infant's arms extending and then coming back together as if embracing. By eliciting this reflex at the end of the examination, the nurse can observe the infant's response and ensure that the examination is completed without unnecessary distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the Moro reflex is typically elicited at the end of the examination to avoid disrupting the assessment process and causing unnecessary discomfort to the infant.

4. The healthcare professional is preparing to use a stethoscope for auscultation. Which statement is true regarding the diaphragm of the stethoscope?

• A. Used to listen for high-pitched sounds
• B. Used to listen for low-pitched sounds
• C. Should be firmly held against the person's skin to block out low-pitched sounds
• D. Should be lightly held against the person's skin to listen for extra heart sounds and murmurs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The diaphragm of the stethoscope is designed for listening to high-pitched sounds like breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds. It should be firmly held against the person's skin to ensure optimal sound transmission, leaving a ring after use. On the other hand, the bell of the stethoscope is ideal for detecting soft, low-pitched sounds such as extra heart sounds or murmurs. Therefore, the diaphragm is not used to block out low-pitched sounds but rather to enhance the detection of high-frequency sounds.

5. A newly admitted patient with major depression has lost 20 pounds over the past month and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis.

• A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
• B. Chronic low self-esteem
• C. Risk for suicide
• D. Hopelessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario is 'Risk for suicide.' When a patient presents with major depression, significant weight loss, suicidal ideation, and lack of symptom improvement despite medication, the immediate concern is to address the risk of suicide. 'Risk for suicide' takes precedence as it involves a direct threat to the patient's life. 'Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements' may be a concern but does not take priority over the risk of suicide. 'Chronic low self-esteem' and 'Hopelessness' are relevant issues in depression but are not as urgent as addressing the immediate risk of suicidal behavior.

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