Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

• A. Once a shift
• B. Once an hour
• C. Every 2 hours
• D. Every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

2. To accurately assess a patient's respiration rate, which of the following methods would be BEST?

• A. Tell the patient, 'Please remain silent while I count your number of breaths.'
• B. Count respirations at the same time you are counting the pulse rate
• C. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute.
• D. Count the patient's respiration rate, then take the patient's temperature, and then take the pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate method to assess a patient's respiration rate is to count the breaths simultaneously while counting the pulse rate. This approach ensures that the patient is unaware of the specific focus on their breathing, preventing any conscious alteration in breathing patterns. Choice A is incorrect because informing the patient may lead to altered breathing as the patient may consciously change their breathing pattern. Choice C involves counting the pulse rate first, which is not necessary for assessing respiration rate. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary steps such as taking the patient's temperature before counting respiration rate, which adds no value to accurately assessing the respiration rate.

3. What technique would the nurse use to accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult?

• A. Use a lubricated blunt tip thermometer.
• B. Insert the thermometer 2 to 3 inches into the rectum.
• C. Leave the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes if the patient is febrile.
• D. Wait 2 to 3 minutes if the patient has recently smoked a cigarette.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To accurately assess a rectal temperature in an adult, a nurse should use a lubricated rectal thermometer with a short, blunt tip. The thermometer is inserted only 2 to 3 cm (1 inch) into the rectum and left in place for 2 minutes. Choice B is incorrect as inserting the thermometer 2 to 3 inches would be too deep and inaccurate. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the thermometer in place for up to 8 minutes is unnecessary and can cause discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as smoking a cigarette does not impact rectal temperatures.

4. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

5. The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the following four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled
• B. A 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath
• C. A 77-year-old patient with tuberculosis (TB) who has four antitubercular medications due in 15 minutes
• D. A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2 F (37.8 C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 46-year-old patient on bed rest who is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. Patients on bed rest who are immobile are at high risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sudden onset of shortness of breath in a patient with a DVT suggests a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and action such as oxygen administration to maintain adequate oxygenation. The other patients should also be assessed as soon as possible, but they do not present with an immediate life-threatening condition that requires urgent intervention like the patient experiencing sudden shortness of breath.

Similar Questions