Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?

• A. Once a shift
• B. Once an hour
• C. Every 2 hours
• D. Every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.

2. A second-year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most significant action that the nursing student should take?

• A. Immediately see a social worker
• B. Start prophylactic AZT treatment
• C. Start prophylactic Pentamidine treatment
• D. Seek counseling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Starting prophylactic AZT treatment is the most critical intervention in this scenario. Azidothymidine (AZT) is an antiretroviral medication used to prevent and treat HIV/AIDS by reducing the replication of the virus. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV involves taking medication to suppress the virus and prevent infection after exposure. PEP should be initiated within 72 hours of potential HIV exposure to be effective. Seeking treatment quickly is crucial to enhance its effectiveness. Seeing a social worker (Choice A) may be helpful for emotional support but is not the immediate priority. Pentamidine treatment (Choice C) is not indicated for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV. Seeking counseling (Choice D) is important for the nursing student's emotional well-being but does not address the urgent need for post-exposure prophylaxis to prevent HIV transmission.

3. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

4. The nurse is assessing children in a pediatric clinic. Which statement is true regarding the measurement of blood pressure in children?

• A. Blood pressure guidelines for children are based on age.
• B. Phase II Korotkoff sounds are the best indicator of systolic blood pressure in children.
• C. Using a Doppler device is recommended for accurate blood pressure measurements until adolescence.
• D. The disappearance of phase V Korotkoff sounds can be used for the diastolic reading in children.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The disappearance of phase V Korotkoff sounds can be used for the diastolic reading in children, as well as in adults. Blood pressure guidelines for children are based on more than just age, but also sex and height. Phase I Korotkoff, not Phase II, is the best indicator of systolic blood pressure. The true statement regarding the measurement of blood pressure in children is that the disappearance of phase V Korotkoff sounds can be used for the diastolic reading in children, as well as in adults.

5. The nurse should wash from the ________________________ when washing a patient's eye area.

• A. outer canthus to the inner canthus
• B. inner canthus to the outer canthus
• C. internal nares to the external nares
• D. external nares to the internal nares

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When washing a patient's eye area, it is important to start from the inner canthus (closest to the nose) and move towards the outer canthus. This direction prevents any contaminants or debris from the outer area of the eye from moving towards the inner, more sensitive area. Choices C and D are incorrect as they pertain to the nasal passages (nares), which are not relevant when washing the eye area.

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