Nursing Elites

1. When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, which guideline is correct?

• A. The standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes.
• B. The length of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• C. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• D. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the arm circumference.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When selecting the correct blood pressure cuff size, it is essential to ensure that the width of the rubber bladder equals 40% of the circumference of the person's arm. This ensures proper fitting and accurate readings. The length of the bladder should actually equal 80% of the arm circumference, not 80% of the width, making choices B and C incorrect. Choice A stating that the standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes is inaccurate, as using an incorrectly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate blood pressure readings.

2. An adult patient is at the clinic for a physical examination. The patient states that they are feeling 'very anxious' about the physical examination. What steps can the nurse take to make the patient more comfortable?

• A. Appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient.
• B. Leave the room when the patient undresses unless they need assistance.
• C. Ask the patient to change into an examining gown and to leave their undergarments on.
• D. Measure vital signs at the beginning of the examination to gradually accustom the patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To help alleviate the patient's anxiety, the nurse should appear unhurried and confident during the examination. This can make the patient feel more at ease and reassured. It is important for the nurse to respect the patient's privacy by leaving the room while the patient changes unless assistance is needed. The patient should be instructed to change into an examining gown while leaving their undergarments on, providing a sense of comfort and familiarity. Additionally, measuring vital signs at the beginning of the examination can help gradually acclimate the patient to the process, making it less overwhelming. Therefore, the correct answer is to appear unhurried and confident when examining the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the patient's anxiety or provide comfort in the same way as the correct answer.

3. During an initial assessment interview, which statement made by a patient should serve as the priority focus for the plan of care?

• A. "I can always trust my family."?
• B. "It seems like I always have bad luck."?
• C. "You never know who will turn against you."?
• D. "I hear evil voices that tell me to do bad things."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The statement about hearing evil voices indicates that the patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations, which is a significant symptom that requires immediate attention and intervention. This symptom can be associated with serious mental health conditions like psychosis. Choices A, B, and C are more general statements that do not provide specific information about the patient's mental health status or symptoms, making them less urgent and not as critical for the plan of care compared to the presence of auditory hallucinations.

4. During an office visit, the healthcare provider is assessing a patient's skin. What part of the hand and technique would be used to best assess the patient's skin temperature?

• A. Fingertips
• B. Dorsal surface of the hand
• C. Ulnar portion of the hand
• D. Palmar surface of the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the dorsal surface of the hand. The dorsa (backs) of the hands and fingers are best for determining temperature because the skin is thinner on the dorsal surfaces than on the palms. Fingertips are best for fine, tactile discrimination and not for assessing skin temperature. The ulnar and palmar surfaces of the hands are not as effective for assessing skin temperature as the dorsal surface because they have thicker skin layers.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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