NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, which guideline is correct?
- A. The standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes.
- B. The length of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
- C. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
- D. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the arm circumference.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When selecting the correct blood pressure cuff size, it is essential to ensure that the width of the rubber bladder equals 40% of the circumference of the person's arm. This ensures proper fitting and accurate readings. The length of the bladder should actually equal 80% of the arm circumference, not 80% of the width, making choices B and C incorrect. Choice A stating that the standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes is inaccurate, as using an incorrectly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate blood pressure readings.
2. When assessing the pulse of a 6-year-old patient, the nurse notices that the heart rate varies with the respiratory cycle, speeding up at the peak of inspiration and slowing to normal with expiration. What action would the nurse take next?
- A. Notify the physician.
- B. Record this finding as normal.
- C. Check the child's blood pressure and note any variation with respiration.
- D. Document that this child has bradycardia and continue with the assessment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to record this finding as normal. Sinus dysrhythmia, characterized by heart rate variation with the respiratory cycle, is commonly found in children and young adults. The heart rate speeds up at the peak of inspiration and slows to normal with expiration. This phenomenon is a normal variant and does not require any intervention. There is no need to notify the physician as this finding is within the expected range for this age group. Checking the child's blood pressure for variations with respiration or documenting the child as having bradycardia would not be appropriate in this case, as sinus dysrhythmia is a normal physiological response.
3. What is the most useful patient position for proctologic exams?
- A. Trendelenburg
- B. Semi-Fowler's
- C. Full Fowler's
- D. Jack Knife
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Jack Knife position is the most useful for proctologic exams as it allows the patient to lie face down while keeping the buttocks elevated, providing optimal access for the examination. The Trendelenburg position, characterized by the body being laid flat with the feet higher than the head, is not suitable for proctologic exams. Semi-Fowler's and Full Fowler's positions are typically utilized for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions and are not ideal for proctologic examinations due to their lack of optimal access to the perianal area.
4. A healthcare professional is considering which patient to admit to the same room as a patient who had a liver transplant 3 weeks ago and is now hospitalized with acute rejection. Which patient would be the best choice?
- A. Patient who is receiving chemotherapy for liver cancer
- B. Patient who is receiving chemotherapy for lung cancer
- C. Patient who has a wound infection after cholecystectomy
- D. Patient who requires pain management for chronic pancreatitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient with chronic pancreatitis is the best choice to admit to the same room as a patient who had a liver transplant and is experiencing acute rejection. This is because the patient with chronic pancreatitis does not pose an infection risk to the immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. On the other hand, patients receiving chemotherapy for cancer or those with wound infections are at risk for infections, which could endanger the immunosuppressed patient with acute rejection.
5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
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