Nursing Elites

1. When checking for proper blood pressure cuff size, which guideline is correct?

• A. The standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes.
• B. The length of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• C. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 80% of the arm circumference.
• D. The width of the rubber bladder should equal 40% of the arm circumference.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When selecting the correct blood pressure cuff size, it is essential to ensure that the width of the rubber bladder equals 40% of the circumference of the person's arm. This ensures proper fitting and accurate readings. The length of the bladder should actually equal 80% of the arm circumference, not 80% of the width, making choices B and C incorrect. Choice A stating that the standard cuff size is appropriate for all sizes is inaccurate, as using an incorrectly sized cuff can lead to inaccurate blood pressure readings.

2. Should standard precautions be used when providing post mortem care to a patient who has died from a massive heart attack and had no other diseases, illnesses, or infections?

• A. Yes, because the patient must be treated with respect
• B. Yes, you still must use standard precautions
• C. No, because the patient had no infections
• D. No, because this is not respectful

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yes, you must still use standard precautions when providing post mortem care, regardless of the patient's medical history. Standard precautions are essential to prevent the transmission of potential infectious agents and protect both the healthcare provider and others from exposure. Even if the patient did not have known infections, it is crucial to maintain a safe environment and uphold professional standards of care. Choice A is incorrect as using standard precautions is primarily for infection control rather than solely for respect. Choices C and D are incorrect as the absence of infections or the notion of respect does not negate the need for standard precautions in post mortem care.

3. When assisting a client with shampooing his hair while he is still in bed, a nurse raises the bed to approximately the level of her waist. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. To prevent shampoo from getting into the client's eyes
• B. To allow excess water to run off the edge of the bed
• C. To decrease strain on the nurse's back
• D. To prevent the client's hair from developing tangles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raising the bed to the level of the nurse's waist while assisting a client with shampooing in bed is done to reduce strain on the nurse's back. This adjustment ensures that the nurse can work comfortably without excessive bending or stooping, thus preventing back injuries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While preventing shampoo from getting into the client's eyes, allowing excess water to run off the bed, and preventing hair tangles are important considerations, the primary rationale for raising the bed is to prioritize the nurse's ergonomic safety and prevent musculoskeletal strain.

4. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

5. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

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