NCLEX-RN
Safe and Effective Care Environment NCLEX RN Questions
1. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?
- A. The client's IV is infiltrated
- B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
- C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
- D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.
2. You see a patient lying on the floor of the bathroom. You are NOT assigned to this patient. What is the first thing that you should do?
- A. Get the nurse who is caring for the patient.
- B. Tell the nurse that the patient has had another seizure.
- C. Observe the patient for any injuries and call out for help.
- D. Nothing. This patient is not one of your assignments.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct course of action in this situation is to observe the patient for any injuries and call out for help. It is crucial to act immediately in an emergency, regardless of whether the patient is under your care. Checking for injuries and seeking assistance can help ensure the patient receives prompt and appropriate care. Choosing to inform the nurse of a seizure without evidence or taking no action because the patient is not your assignment are not optimal responses. In a healthcare setting, patient safety and well-being should always be the top priority.
3. A newly admitted patient with major depression has lost 20 pounds over the past month and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis.
- A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
- B. Chronic low self-esteem
- C. Risk for suicide
- D. Hopelessness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis in this scenario is 'Risk for suicide.' When a patient presents with major depression, significant weight loss, suicidal ideation, and lack of symptom improvement despite medication, the immediate concern is to address the risk of suicide. 'Risk for suicide' takes precedence as it involves a direct threat to the patient's life. 'Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements' may be a concern but does not take priority over the risk of suicide. 'Chronic low self-esteem' and 'Hopelessness' are relevant issues in depression but are not as urgent as addressing the immediate risk of suicidal behavior.
4. In the Gram Stain procedure, which component acts as the mordant?
- A. Crystal violet
- B. Methyl alcohol
- C. Iodine
- D. Safranin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the Gram Stain procedure, the mordant is Gram's Iodine. The purpose of the mordant is to form a complex with the crystal violet, enhancing its ability to bind to the cell wall. Crystal violet is actually the primary stain used in the Gram Stain procedure to initially color all cells. Methyl alcohol is the decolorizer that removes the crystal violet from certain cell types. Safranin is the counterstain used to stain those cells that did not retain the crystal violet stain after the decolorization step.
5. In a 68-year-old man, a gradual loss of hearing is known as _____________.
- A. presbycusis
- B. xerostomia
- C. myopia
- D. presbyopia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'presbycusis.' Presbycusis is the age-related gradual loss of hearing ability, commonly seen in the elderly population. Xerostomia refers to dry mouth, myopia is nearsightedness, and presbyopia is the age-related loss of the eye's ability to focus on close objects. Given Mr. Roberts' age and symptom of gradual hearing loss, presbycusis is the most likely diagnosis. Xerostomia, myopia, and presbyopia do not match the sensory change described in the question, making them incorrect choices.
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