Nursing Elites

1. A client is complaining of pain in his right hand after surgery. The IV in his hand has slowed down, and the skin around the site is reddened and cool. The client reports localized pain in the hand and fingers. What is the most likely cause of this client's pain?

• A. The client's IV is infiltrated
• B. The client is experiencing phlebitis from the last drug administered
• C. The client has a blood clot developing in the distal arteries of the wrist
• D. The client's pain is associated with myocardial ischemia and he is having a heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pain, cool skin, and edema at an IV injection site indicate IV infiltration. The reddened and cool skin around the IV site, along with localized pain and a slowed IV drip rate, are classic signs of infiltration. Infiltration occurs when IV fluids or medications enter the surrounding tissues instead of the vein, leading to potential tissue damage. Phlebitis is inflammation of a vein, not infiltration. A blood clot in the distal arteries of the wrist would not cause these specific symptoms. Myocardial ischemia and heart attack are unrelated to the client's localized hand pain and IV issues.

2. What term is used to describe the sexual response changes among middle-aged men?

• A. Menopause
• B. Climacteric
• C. Generativity
• D. Maturity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Climacteric.' Climacteric specifically refers to the period in middle-aged men characterized by sexual response changes, such as delayed arousal. Menopause, choice A, is incorrect as it is specific to women and marks the cessation of menstrual periods. Generativity, choice C, is unrelated as it refers to the concern for guiding the next generation. Maturity, choice D, is too broad and generally refers to reaching the adult stage of development, not specifically addressing sexual response changes in middle-aged men.

3. The nurse is developing a plan of care for an infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus. The nurse should include in the plan that which position is the most appropriate one for the infant in the postoperative period?

• A. Prone position
• B. Supine with no head elevation
• C. Side-lying with the legs extended
• D. Supine with the head elevated 45 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate position for an infant after surgical intervention for imperforate anus is the prone position. Placing the infant in a prone position helps keep the hips elevated, reducing edema and pressure on the surgical site. This position promotes optimal healing and comfort for the infant. Option B, supine with no head elevation, does not provide the necessary elevation to reduce pressure on the surgical site. Option C, side-lying with the legs extended, does not offer the same benefits as the prone position in terms of reducing pressure on the surgical site. Option D, supine with the head elevated 45 degrees, does not specifically address the need for hip elevation to prevent pressure on the surgical site. Therefore, the correct choice is the prone position for this postoperative care scenario.

4. Which of the following questions is considered open-ended?

• A. What time did you last take your medications?
• B. Are you feeling okay right now?
• C. Please describe your symptoms.
• D. What day are you available for a follow-up appointment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Please describe your symptoms.' This question is considered open-ended because it encourages the respondent to provide a detailed and descriptive answer, fostering a more elaborate response. Open-ended questions are designed to prompt thoughtful and detailed responses. Choice A is a closed-ended question since it seeks a specific time for the medication intake. Choice B is also closed-ended as it can be answered with a simple 'yes' or 'no,' limiting the response. Choice D is closed-ended as it requests a specific day for the follow-up appointment, restricting the range of possible responses.

5. The nurse is assessing an 80-year-old male patient. Which assessment finding would be considered normal?

• A. Decrease in body weight from his younger years
• B. Decrease in deposits of fat in the cheeks and forearms
• C. Presence of kyphosis and flexion in bilateral knees and hips
• D. Change in overall body proportion, including a longer trunk and shorter extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an 80-year-old male patient, the presence of kyphosis (rounded upper back) and flexion in bilateral knees and hips are considered normal age-related changes. These postural changes are commonly seen in older adults due to structural changes in the spine and joints. Option A is incorrect as aging individuals typically experience a decrease in body weight, not an increase. Option B is also incorrect as there is usually a decrease in subcutaneous fat from the face and periphery, rather than an increase in fat deposits in specific areas. Option D is incorrect because the change in overall body proportion with aging usually involves a shorter trunk and relatively longer extremities, not the other way around. This is because long bones do not shorten with age, leading to this characteristic change in body proportions.

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