Nursing Elites

1. Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?

• A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
• B. Embolic stroke
• C. Sexual abuse
• D. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation, and self-neglect. In this scenario, given Madge's age, history of dementia, and the presence of unexplained bruising in sensitive areas, sexual abuse must be considered as a major concern. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a platelet disorder that presents with excessive bruising and bleeding, but it is less likely in this case as the bruising pattern is suggestive of a different cause. Embolic stroke is a neurological condition that typically presents with sudden onset neurological deficits and is not related to the observed bruising. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP) is a common issue in elderly residents but would not manifest as bruising in specific areas like the breasts and genitals.

2. A patient is bleeding profusely from an injury near her wrist. Which of the following first aid procedures would be MOST appropriate?

• A. Place a tourniquet on her arm above the injury.
• B. Place pressure on her brachial artery.
• C. Place pressure on her radial nerve.
• D. Cover the bleeding area with wet towels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate first aid procedure for a patient bleeding profusely from an injury near the wrist is to place pressure on her brachial artery. Applying pressure to the brachial pulse point will help slow down the bleeding. Placing a tourniquet on her arm above the injury is not recommended as it could potentially inhibit blood flow, leading to tissue necrosis. Pressing on the radial nerve or covering the bleeding area with wet towels are not effective in controlling bleeding and may not address the underlying cause.

3. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

4. What term is used to describe the sexual response changes among middle-aged men?

• A. Menopause
• B. Climacteric
• C. Generativity
• D. Maturity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Climacteric.' Climacteric specifically refers to the period in middle-aged men characterized by sexual response changes, such as delayed arousal. Menopause, choice A, is incorrect as it is specific to women and marks the cessation of menstrual periods. Generativity, choice C, is unrelated as it refers to the concern for guiding the next generation. Maturity, choice D, is too broad and generally refers to reaching the adult stage of development, not specifically addressing sexual response changes in middle-aged men.

5. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?

• A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
• B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
• C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
• D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.

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