Nursing Elites

1. A client is preparing to administer an enema to a 64-year-old client. Which of the following actions of the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Assist the client to lie in the semi-Fowler position
• B. Apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion
• C. Instill a total of 30cc of fluid into the client's rectum
• D. Ask the client to hold the solution in for 30 seconds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering an enema to a client, the nurse should place the client in the Sims' position for easy access. The correct action is to apply lubricating jelly to the tip of the catheter before insertion to facilitate a smoother procedure. It is essential to instill a maximum of 750 to 1000 cc of fluid for an adult client, not just 30cc. Following administration, the nurse should ask the client to hold the solution for at least 5 minutes to allow for the desired effect of the enema. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate action, as choices A, C, and D are incorrect due to inaccuracies in positioning, enema volume, and retention time.

2. Which of the following is the most likely cause of constipation in a client?

• A. Postponing bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs
• B. Intestinal infection
• C. Antibiotic use
• D. Food allergies

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to postpone bowel movement when the urge to defecate occurs. Clients who delay bowel movements by ignoring the urge to defecate or not evacuating promptly, such as in situations where they are not near a bathroom, are at higher risk of developing constipation. This behavior leads to a decrease in bowel movement frequency, slowed intestinal motility, and increased fecal water absorption, resulting in hard, dry stools that are difficult to pass. Intestinal infection (choice B), antibiotic use (choice C), and food allergies (choice D) are less likely to be direct causes of constipation compared to postponing bowel movements.

3. The client is being discharged to a long-term care (LTC) facility. The nurse is preparing a progress note to communicate to the LTC staff the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not. To do this effectively, the nurse should:

• A. Formulate post-discharge nursing diagnoses
• B. Draw conclusion about resolution of current client problems
• C. Assess the client for baseline data to be used at the LTC facility
• D. Plan the care that is needed in the LTC facility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To effectively communicate the client's outcome goals that were met and those that were not to the LTC staff, the nurse should draw conclusions about the resolution of the current client problems. Terminal evaluation is performed to determine the client's condition at discharge, focusing on which goals were achieved and which were not. Formulating post-discharge nursing diagnoses (option A) is not the most appropriate action in this scenario as it focuses on identifying potential problems after discharge rather than evaluating achieved goals. Assessing the client for baseline data (option C) is not necessary at this point as the focus is on evaluating outcomes rather than collecting baseline data. Planning the care needed in the LTC facility (option D) is premature as this should be done on admission to the LTC facility and not during the discharge process.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. You are ready to give your resident a complete bed bath. The temperature of this bath water should be which of the following?

• A. Cooler than a tub bath.
• B. Hotter than a tub bath.
• C. About 106 degrees.
• D. Over 120 degrees.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct temperature for a bed bath water should be about 106 degrees. This temperature is considered safe and comfortable for residents. Using a bath thermometer is essential to ensure the water is not too hot, as hot water can cause burns. On the other hand, water that is too cool can lead to discomfort, shivering, and chilling. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because cooler water may cause discomfort and shivering, hotter water can lead to burns, and water over 120 degrees is considered too hot and risky for a resident's skin.

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