Nursing Elites

1. A patient has suddenly developed shortness of breath and appears to be in significant respiratory distress. After calling the physician and placing the patient on oxygen, which of these actions is the best for the nurse to take when further assessing the patient?

• A. Count the patient's respirations.
• B. Bilaterally percuss the thorax, noting any differences in percussion tones.
• C. Call for a chest x-ray and wait for the results before beginning an assessment.
• D. Inspect the thorax for any new masses and bleeding associated with respirations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is in significant respiratory distress, bilaterally percussing the thorax to note any differences in percussion tones is a crucial nursing intervention. Percussion provides instant feedback regarding changes in underlying tissue density, which can give important clues about the patient's physical status. This hands-on assessment technique is readily available and can be performed promptly. Counting the patient's respirations, while important, may not provide as much detailed information as percussion. Ordering a chest x-ray and waiting for the results can cause a delay in assessing and addressing the patient's immediate needs. Inspecting the thorax for new masses and bleeding, although relevant, may not offer as much real-time information about the patient's condition compared to percussion.

2. Which of the following descriptors is most appropriate to use when stating the 'problem' part of a nursing diagnosis?

• A. Grimacing
• B. Anxiety
• C. Oxygenation saturation 93%
• D. Output 500 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The problem part of a nursing diagnosis in the context of nursing care plans should focus on the client's response to a life process, event, or stressor. This response is what is used to identify the nursing diagnosis. 'Anxiety' is the most appropriate descriptor for the problem part of a nursing diagnosis as it reflects a psychological response that can be addressed by nursing interventions. 'Grimacing' is a physical manifestation and not the problem itself. 'Oxygenation saturation 93%' and 'Output 500 mL in 8 hours' are data points or cues that a nurse would use to formulate the nursing diagnostic statement, not the actual problem being addressed.

3. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

• A. Retractions
• B. Elongated expiratory phase
• C. Stridor
• D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

4. You are taking care of 5 patients today. One of your patients wants water; another needs help walking to the bathroom; another just stated that they have chest pain; and another is crying because his daughter did not visit him today. Which patient care problem must you deal with first?

• A. The water
• B. Help to the bathroom
• C. The chest pain
• D. The crying person

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The chest pain must be addressed immediately as it could indicate a serious condition like a heart attack. Treating chest pain is a top priority in healthcare settings due to the potential life-threatening nature of the symptom. Providing immediate attention to chest pain ensures prompt assessment, diagnosis, and intervention, which are crucial for patient safety and well-being. Addressing the other needs, such as providing water, assisting with bathroom needs, or emotional support, can follow once the urgent issue of chest pain has been managed. While the other patient concerns are important, the critical nature of chest pain requires immediate action to rule out severe cardiac events and provide appropriate care.

5. Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient who is being monitored for coagulation therapy?

• A. PT/INR
• B. CBC
• C. PTT
• D. WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT/INR. Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are commonly used to monitor patients on Coumadin (warfarin) therapy, an anticoagulant that slows the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring PT/INR levels helps ensure the patient is receiving the appropriate dosage of Coumadin. Choice B, CBC (Complete Blood Count), is a general test that provides information on red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets but is not specific to monitoring coagulation therapy. Choice C, PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time), is another coagulation test but is not as commonly used for monitoring Coumadin therapy. Choice D, WBC (White Blood Cell count), is unrelated to monitoring coagulation therapy and is used to assess immune system function.

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