Nursing Elites

1. A client is being seen for disrupted sleep patterns. The nurse encourages the client to verbalize feelings about sleep and inability to maintain adequate sleep habits. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. The client most likely has a mental illness that should be treated before addressing sleep issues
• B. The client may have unrecognized anxiety or fear that could be contributing to poor sleep habits
• C. The client may become tired once they start talking
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients experiencing disrupted sleep patterns may have underlying anxiety or fear contributing to their poor sleep habits. Encouraging clients to verbalize their feelings about sleep allows them to address any negative emotions that may be impacting their ability to sleep well. By working through these issues, clients may experience increased peace and relaxation, which can help promote better sleep. Option A is incorrect because assuming a mental illness without evidence can lead to mismanagement of the client's care. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the underlying emotional factors affecting the client's sleep patterns. Option D is incorrect as there is a specific rationale for encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings about sleep.

2. During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?

• A. 40-year-old with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pain
• B. 58-year-old who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexia
• C. 55-year-old with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C)
• D. 36-year-old recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When prioritizing patient assessments, the nurse should address the patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an elevated oral temperature of 102�F (38.8�C) first. This presentation suggests a potential infection, which is critical to address promptly in a patient with liver disease. An infection in a patient with cirrhosis can quickly progress to severe complications. The other options, such as chronic pancreatitis with abdominal pain, compensated cirrhosis with anorexia, and post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy with shoulder pain, do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation requiring urgent assessment compared to a possible infection in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites.

3. Which of the following safety precautions should the nurse discuss when working with an immunocompromised client?

• A. Avoid canned foods and increase consumption of fresh fruits and vegetables
• B. Hand-wash utensils after use and allow them to air dry
• C. Only drink tap water that has been filtered or boiled before consumption
• D. Never eat meals prepared in restaurants

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to only drink tap water that has been filtered or boiled before consumption. Immunocompromised clients are susceptible to infections, so it is essential to take precautions to prevent exposure to harmful pathogens. Drinking tap water that has been filtered or boiled helps eliminate potential pathogens that could be harmful to the client's health. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address the issue of avoiding potential pathogens that could compromise the health of an immunocompromised client. Thus, they are incorrect. Hand-washing utensils, avoiding canned foods, and increasing fruit and vegetable consumption are good general hygiene practices but may not specifically address the needs of an immunocompromised client.

4. Specific gravity in urinalysis:

• A. compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water
• B. is useless when the patient is dehydrated
• C. can only be measured using a refractometer
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Specific gravity in urinalysis measures the concentration of solutes in urine compared to that of distilled water. This comparison helps in assessing the kidney's ability to concentrate urine properly. It is a valuable test even in dehydrated patients as it provides insights into renal function. Specific gravity can be measured using various methods, including a refractometer or reagent strips. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine typically range from 1.005 to 1.030. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes the purpose of specific gravity in urinalysis. Choices B and C are incorrect as specific gravity remains relevant in dehydrated patients and can be measured using different techniques, not solely a refractometer.

5. Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?

• A. Tubercle
• B. Tuberosity
• C. Condyle
• D. Trochanter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.

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