Nursing Elites

1. A client is being seen for disrupted sleep patterns. The nurse encourages the client to verbalize feelings about sleep and inability to maintain adequate sleep habits. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. The client most likely has a mental illness that should be treated before addressing sleep issues
• B. The client may have unrecognized anxiety or fear that could be contributing to poor sleep habits
• C. The client may become tired once they start talking
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients experiencing disrupted sleep patterns may have underlying anxiety or fear contributing to their poor sleep habits. Encouraging clients to verbalize their feelings about sleep allows them to address any negative emotions that may be impacting their ability to sleep well. By working through these issues, clients may experience increased peace and relaxation, which can help promote better sleep. Option A is incorrect because assuming a mental illness without evidence can lead to mismanagement of the client's care. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the underlying emotional factors affecting the client's sleep patterns. Option D is incorrect as there is a specific rationale for encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings about sleep.

2. You are ready to wash your patient's face. You would start by washing what area of the face?

• A. The forehead
• B. The eyes
• C. The ears
• D. The cheeks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When washing a patient's face, it is essential to start by cleaning the eyes. The eye area is considered the priority because moving from an area that can potentially be infected to areas of the face and body that are least able to become infected with a washcloth helps prevent the spread of germs. Washing the forehead, ears, or cheeks before the eyes may risk transferring bacteria to a more sensitive area like the eyes, which could lead to infections or other complications. Therefore, starting with the eyes ensures proper hygiene and reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the patient's face.

3. A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for the condition?

• A. 142/92
• B. 118/72
• C. 120/80
• D. 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting medications for essential hypertension, a patient would typically present with a blood pressure reading equal to or greater than 140/90. This indicates high blood pressure and is characteristic of essential hypertension. Choice A, 142/92, falls within this range, making it the correct answer. Choices B (118/72), C (120/80), and D (138/88) all have blood pressure readings that are within the normal range and would not typically be expected in a patient diagnosed with essential hypertension. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the elevated blood pressure levels seen in essential hypertension.

4. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

5. The Atlas and the Axis are:

• A. found in the vertebrae.
• B. described as being cervical.
• C. the first two bones that form the column for the spine on the superior aspect.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Atlas and the Axis are the first two cervical vertebrae, designated as C1 and C2. The Atlas (C1) supports the skull, while the Axis (C2) allows for rotation of the skull. Therefore, all the statements in choices A, B, and C are correct, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choice A is correct as the Atlas and Axis are indeed found in the vertebrae. Choice B is correct as they are the first two cervical vertebrae. Choice C is correct as these bones form the superior aspect of the spine.

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