NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Prep
1. A client is being seen for disrupted sleep patterns. The nurse encourages the client to verbalize feelings about sleep and inability to maintain adequate sleep habits. What is the rationale for this action?
- A. The client most likely has a mental illness that should be treated before addressing sleep issues
- B. The client may have unrecognized anxiety or fear that could be contributing to poor sleep habits
- C. The client may become tired once they start talking
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients experiencing disrupted sleep patterns may have underlying anxiety or fear contributing to their poor sleep habits. Encouraging clients to verbalize their feelings about sleep allows them to address any negative emotions that may be impacting their ability to sleep well. By working through these issues, clients may experience increased peace and relaxation, which can help promote better sleep. Option A is incorrect because assuming a mental illness without evidence can lead to mismanagement of the client's care. Option C is incorrect as it does not address the underlying emotional factors affecting the client's sleep patterns. Option D is incorrect as there is a specific rationale for encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings about sleep.
2. Which of the following statements best describes footdrop?
- A. The foot is permanently fixed in the dorsiflexion position
- B. The foot is permanently fixed in the plantar flexion position
- C. The toes of the foot are permanently fanned
- D. The heel of the foot is permanently rotated outward
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Footdrop results in the foot becoming permanently fixed in a plantar flexion position, not dorsiflexion. This position points the toes downward. The client may be unable to put weight on the foot, making ambulation difficult. Footdrop can be caused by immobility or chronic illnesses that cause muscle changes, such as multiple sclerosis or Parkinson's disease. Choice A is incorrect because footdrop leads to plantar flexion, not dorsiflexion. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a different condition known as 'toe fanning.' Choice D is incorrect as it describes an external rotation of the heel, which is not a characteristic of footdrop.
3. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?
- A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
- B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
- C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
- D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.
4. Which of the following is recommended by Joint Commission guidelines regarding the use of restraints?
- A. Vest restraints should be used because they are the least restrictive type.
- B. Restraints should be used for 48 hours in non-psychiatric patients.
- C. Restraints should be applied to prevent wandering behavior.
- D. Alternative measures must be attempted first.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When considering the use of restraints, Joint Commission guidelines emphasize the importance of attempting alternative measures before resorting to restraint application. This ensures that a comprehensive assessment is conducted and less restrictive interventions are explored. Using restraints solely based on their perceived level of restrictiveness, as stated in choice A, is not in line with the recommended approach. Restraints should not be used to manage wandering behavior, as indicated in choice C. Additionally, the statement in choice B regarding the duration of restraint use is inaccurate, as restraints on non-psychiatric patients should not exceed 24 hours according to The Joint Commission.
5. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank for 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?
- A. This too shall pass.
- B. Take the child immediately to the ER
- C. Contact the Poison Control Center quickly
- D. Give the child syrup of ipecac
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In situations where a child has ingested a potentially harmful substance, contacting the Poison Control Center quickly is crucial. The Poison Control Center can provide specific guidance tailored to the child's situation, which can include whether immediate medical attention is necessary or if any actions need to be taken at home. Option A, 'This too shall pass,' is not appropriate as it dismisses the seriousness of the situation. Option B, 'Take the child immediately to the ER,' may not always be the best course of action without guidance from experts. Option D, 'Give the child syrup of ipecac,' is outdated advice and not recommended as a first response to poisoning incidents.
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