NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school-age child for evaluation?
- A. Polyphagia
- B. Dehydration
- C. Bedwetting
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bedwetting.' One of the initial symptoms of type 1 diabetes in children is bedwetting. Parents are likely to notice bedwetting in a school-age child, prompting them to seek evaluation. Polyphagia (excessive hunger) and weight loss are also common symptoms of diabetes but may not be as readily noticeable to parents compared to bedwetting. Dehydration is a consequence of diabetes rather than an early symptom that would prompt parents for evaluation.
2. A client is being assessed for risks of a pressure ulcer by a healthcare professional. What is the best description of what may be found with an early pressure ulcer in an African American client?
- A. Skin has a purple/bluish color
- B. Capillary refill is 1 second
- C. Skin appears blanched at the pressure site
- D. Tenting appears when checking skin turgor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing for signs of developing pressure ulcers in a client with dark skin, traditional signs like blanching may not be evident. In individuals with darker skin tones, the skin of an early pressure ulcer may present with a purple or bluish hue. This discoloration can be a crucial indicator of compromised circulation and tissue damage. Capillary refill, blanching, and tenting are more commonly used in the assessment of skin integrity and hydration levels but may not be as reliable in individuals with darker skin tones, making the purple/bluish color a key finding in this context.
3. A patient in metabolic alkalosis is admitted to the emergency department, and pulse oximetry indicates that the O2 saturation is 94%. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Administer bicarbonate.
- B. Complete a head-to-toe assessment.
- C. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen.
- D. Obtain repeat arterial blood gases (ABGs).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with metabolic alkalosis and an O2 saturation of 94%, placing the patient on high-flow oxygen is the correct action. Even though the O2 saturation seems adequate, metabolic alkalosis causes a left shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve, reducing oxygen delivery to tissues. Therefore, providing high-flow oxygen can help compensate for this. Administering bicarbonate would exacerbate the alkalosis. While completing a head-to-toe assessment and obtaining repeat ABGs are important interventions, the priority in this scenario is to improve oxygen delivery by placing the patient on high-flow oxygen.
4. A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?
- A. Possible fracture of the tibia.
- B. Bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle.
- C. Possible fracture of the radius.
- D. No anatomic injury, the child wants his mother to carry him.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The child's refusal to walk, along with swelling of the lower leg, indicates a possible fracture, specifically of the tibia. Fractures can cause pain and swelling, leading to difficulty or refusal to bear weight on the affected limb. Choice B, bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle, would not typically result in the child refusing to walk. Choice C, a possible fracture of the radius, is less likely given the location of the swelling and the associated refusal to walk. Choice D, stating no anatomic injury and attributing the child's behavior to wanting to be carried by the mother, is incorrect as the physical findings suggest a potential fracture that needs to be evaluated further.
5. A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first?
- A. Gastric lavage
- B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally
- C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open
- D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage. Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion.
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