NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. In children suspected to have a diagnosis of diabetes, which one of the following complaints would be most likely to prompt parents to take their school-age child for evaluation?
- A. Polyphagia
- B. Dehydration
- C. Bedwetting
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bedwetting.' One of the initial symptoms of type 1 diabetes in children is bedwetting. Parents are likely to notice bedwetting in a school-age child, prompting them to seek evaluation. Polyphagia (excessive hunger) and weight loss are also common symptoms of diabetes but may not be as readily noticeable to parents compared to bedwetting. Dehydration is a consequence of diabetes rather than an early symptom that would prompt parents for evaluation.
2. Based on the information given, which patient would be an appropriate candidate for a closed MRI without contrast?
- A. A 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI.
- B. A 35-year-old woman with Multiple Sclerosis who is trying to conceive.
- C. A 67-year-old man who had open-heart surgery 4 years ago.
- D. A 40-year-old woman in a hypomanic state for the last 2 days.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the 20-year-old woman with unexplained joint pain and a low BMI. MRI can be used to diagnose musculoskeletal disorders, and this patient has no contraindications to an MRI. Choice B is incorrect because using MRI without contrast may not be ideal for a patient trying to conceive. Choice C is incorrect as the patient's past open-heart surgery may pose risks for an MRI without contrast. Choice D is incorrect since the patient's hypomanic state does not indicate a need for an MRI without contrast for joint pain.
3. A nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the emergency room for an ischemic stroke with marked functional deficits. The physician is considering the use of fibrinolytic therapy with TPA (tissue plasminogen activator). Which history-gathering question would not be important for the nurse to ask?
- A. What time did you first notice symptoms consistently appearing?
- B. Have you been taking any blood thinners such as heparin, lovenox, or warfarin?
- C. Have you had another stroke or head trauma in the previous 3 months?
- D. Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Have you had any blood transfusions within the previous year?' This question is not relevant in the context of considering fibrinolytic therapy with TPA for an ischemic stroke. Blood transfusions within the previous year do not directly impact the decision to use TPA in the treatment of an acute ischemic stroke. The focus should be on factors such as the time of symptom onset, current medications like blood thinners, and recent history of strokes or head trauma, as these are more directly related to the decision-making process for administering TPA in this emergency situation.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recently had a successful catheter ablation. Which assessment finding demonstrates a successful outcome of this procedure?
- A. The patient is free of electrolyte imbalances
- B. The patient's WBC count is within normal limits
- C. The patient's EKG reading is regular
- D. The patient's urine output is 45 mL/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A successful outcome of a catheter ablation procedure for arrhythmias, particularly SVT, is indicated by a regular EKG reading. Catheter ablation involves the use of radiofrequency energy to destroy the conduction fiber in the heart responsible for the arrhythmia. This destruction helps in preventing further episodes of arrhythmia. While choices A, B, and D are important assessments in patient care, they are not specific indicators of the success of a catheter ablation procedure. Electrolyte imbalances, WBC count, and urine output can be affected by various factors and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a catheter ablation in treating arrhythmias.
5. A patient is found unconscious in their room with rhythmic jerking of all four extremities and heavy foaming at the mouth. The patient was on seizure precautions with bedrails up and padded. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?
- A. Administer Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Turn the patient to his/her side
- C. Call the physician
- D. Suction the patient
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to turn the patient to his/her side. This position helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. Administering Lorazepam (Ativan) without ensuring a clear airway could lead to further complications. Calling the physician is important, but immediate interventions to protect the airway take precedence. Suctioning the patient may be necessary but should not be the initial action; positioning for airway protection is the priority.
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