a patient with right lower lobe pneumonia has been treated with iv antibiotics for 3 days which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.

2. A female patient is prescribed metformin for glucose control. The patient is on NPO status pending a diagnostic test. The nurse is most concerned about which side effect of metformin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypoglycemia.' When a patient is on NPO status (nothing by mouth) and prescribed metformin, there is an increased risk of hypoglycemia due to the absence of oral intake. Metformin, as an anti-glycemic drug, can lower blood sugar levels, and without food intake, the risk of hypoglycemia is higher. Diarrhea and vomiting are common gastrointestinal side effects of metformin but are not the main concern in this scenario. Dizziness and drowsiness are potential side effects of some medications but are not typically associated with metformin. Metallic taste is a known side effect of metformin but is not the primary concern in this situation where hypoglycemia is more critical to monitor due to the patient's NPO status.

3. A client is found unresponsive in his room by a nurse. The client is not breathing and does not have a pulse. After calling for help, what is the next action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After finding an unresponsive client who is not breathing and has no pulse, the nurse's immediate action should be to call for help and start chest compressions. Chest compressions should be initiated at a rate of at least 100 per minute and a depth of at least 2 inches. Choice A, administering ventilations, is not the initial step as compressions take priority. Choice B, performing a head-tilt, chin lift, is also not the first step; chest compressions are crucial before airway management. Choice D, performing a jaw thrust, is typically used in cases of suspected cervical spine injury and is not the immediate action in this scenario.

4. What is the likely cause of pericarditis in a young patient?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In younger patients, pericarditis is typically caused by an infection commonly triggered by viruses like the Coxsackie virus, streptococcus, staphylococcus, or Haemophilus influenzae. Infectious processes are the leading cause of pericarditis in younger individuals. Heart failure, Acute MI, and Hypertension are not common causes of pericarditis in young patients. In older adults, acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a more common cause of pericarditis.

5. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.

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