Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assist the patient to sit upright in a chair.
• B. Splint the patient's chest during coughing.
• C. Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.
• D. Observe the patient use the incentive spirometer.

Correct answer: Medicate the patient with prescribed morphine.

Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.

2. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
• B. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
• C. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
• D. Nephrotic syndrome.

Correct answer: Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.

3. A home care nurse instructs the mother of a 5-year-old child with lactose intolerance about dietary measures for her child. The nurse should tell the mother that it is necessary to provide which dietary supplement in the child's diet?

• A. Fats
• B. Zinc
• C. Protein
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In lactose intolerance, the inability to digest lactose, the sugar in dairy products, can lead to calcium deficiency if dairy products are removed from the diet. Calcium is crucial for bone health and other bodily functions, so alternative calcium sources like fortified non-dairy milks or leafy greens must be included to prevent deficiency. While fats and proteins are important nutrients, they are not typically deficient in lactose intolerance. Zinc, although an essential mineral, is not the primary concern in this case.

4. When caring for a patient with Parkinson's Disease, which of the following practices would not be included in the care plan?

• A. Decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain
• B. Allow the patient extra time to respond to questions and perform ADLs
• C. Use thickened liquids and a soft diet
• D. Encourage the patient to hold the spoon when eating

Correct answer: Decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain. Patients with Parkinson's Disease often experience dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and muscle rigidity, which can lead to weight loss. Therefore, increasing calorie intake is essential to meet their nutritional needs. Choice A is incorrect because reducing calories can worsen malnutrition in these patients. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for patients with Parkinson's Disease. Allowing extra time for tasks, using thickened liquids and a soft diet for swallowing difficulties, and encouraging self-feeding promote independence and safety in eating.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 20 lbs (9 kg) 6-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea, occasional vomiting, and fever. Peripheral intravenous therapy has been initiated, with 5% dextrose in 0.33% normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium per liter infusing at 35 ml/hr. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. 3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour
• B. Periodic crying and irritability
• C. Vigorous sucking on a pacifier
• D. No measurable voiding in 4 hours

Correct answer: No measurable voiding in 4 hours

Rationale: The correct answer is 'No measurable voiding in 4 hours.' This finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The concern is the possibility of hyperkalemia, which could occur with continued potassium administration and a decrease in urinary output since potassium is excreted via the kidneys. It is crucial to monitor urinary output in pediatric patients receiving potassium-containing IV solutions to prevent electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most critical findings that require immediate reporting. '3 episodes of vomiting in 1 hour' may suggest a need for antiemetic therapy or further assessment of the underlying cause but does not pose an immediate risk like the potential electrolyte imbalance from decreased urinary output. 'Periodic crying and irritability' and 'Vigorous sucking on a pacifier' are common behaviors in infants and are not indicative of a critical condition that requires urgent attention in this scenario.

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