the nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain a poor cough effort and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy which action should the nurse take f
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Prioritization Questions

1. The nurse notes that a patient has incisional pain, a poor cough effort, and scattered rhonchi after a thoracotomy. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to medicate the patient with prescribed morphine. A major reason for atelectasis and poor airway clearance in patients after chest surgery is incisional pain, which can worsen with deep breathing and coughing. The priority is to address the incisional pain to facilitate effective coughing and deep breathing, which are essential for clearing the airways and preventing complications. Assisting the patient to sit upright, splinting the patient's chest during coughing, and observing the patient using the incentive spirometer are all appropriate interventions to improve airway clearance, but they should be implemented after addressing the incisional pain with medication.

2. In educating clients on ways to manage pain, which topic can be appropriately delegated to an LPN/LVN who will continue under supervision?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Alternating Rest/Activity.' This topic falls within the nursing scope of practice and is typically covered in the training and education of all nurses, including LPN/LVNs. Educating clients on alternating rest and activity is safe, straightforward, and a standard non-pharmacological pain management strategy. Acupuncture (Choice A) and Guided Imagery (Choice B) involve specific skills and techniques that are typically outside the scope of practice for LPN/LVNs. Over-the-counter medications (Choice D) may require additional assessment, monitoring, and considerations that are beyond the usual delegation for LPN/LVNs.

3. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.

4. A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Decreased appetite.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure, where it helps reduce fluid retention. One common side effect of furosemide is hypokalemia, which can lead to decreased appetite among other symptoms. Hypokalemia is a low level of potassium in the blood, and its signs and symptoms include anorexia, fatigue, nausea, decreased GI motility, muscle weakness, dysrhythmias, reduced urine osmolality, and altered level of consciousness. Weight gain and ankle edema are actually expected outcomes of furosemide therapy due to its diuretic effect, which helps reduce edema and fluid overload. Gastric irritability is a nonspecific symptom that is not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, a decreased appetite is a key indicator of a potential negative side effect when assessing a client on furosemide therapy.

5. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age as part of normal growth and development. This doubling of weight is a common milestone used by healthcare providers to assess a baby's growth progress. Tripling the birth weight or adding 2 pounds each month would result in excessive weight gain, which is not typical or healthy for an infant. Similarly, gaining 6 ounces each week would also lead to rapid and abnormal weight gain, making it an incorrect choice.

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