NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Psychosocial Integrity Questions
1. An adolescent reports irregularity in menses. Her mother complains that her child often fears gaining weight, has poor caloric intake, and has a distorted self-image. Which could be the reason for irregular menses?
- A. Bulimia
- B. Anorexia
- C. Orthorexia
- D. Binge eating disorder
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Anorexia.' Anorexia is characterized by a lack of caloric intake motivated by a strong fear of gaining weight, leading to poor nutrition and potential irregular menses. Bulimia involves binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors. Orthorexia is characterized by an obsession with eating only healthy or 'pure' foods. Binge eating disorder is characterized by consuming large amounts of high-calorie food in a short period.
2. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
3. An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with which of the following illnesses?
- A. Schizophrenia
- B. Depression
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. Anxiety
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in the neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with schizophrenia. Dopamine dysregulation is linked to some symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Depression (choice B) is more commonly associated with abnormalities in serotonin and norepinephrine. Alzheimer's disease (choice C) is primarily characterized by deficits in acetylcholine and other neurotransmitters. Anxiety disorders (choice D) are often linked to imbalances in neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and GABA, rather than dopamine.
4. Which response would the nurse provide to a client in labor at 32 weeks' gestation who tells the nurse that she and her husband are very concerned because the baby will be born 2 months early?
- A. ''You should be concerned. I feel for you.''
- B. 'If you're concerned, let's talk about it.''
- C. ''Try not to worry about it; just concentrate on your labor.''
- D. 'Don't worry; the care of preterm babies has greatly improved.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ''If you're concerned, let's talk about it.'' Offering to talk with the client encourages her to verbalize concerns, serving as an outlet for tension. The nurse's first step should be to listen to the client's concerns and emotions before providing more specific information. Choice A is incorrect as telling the client she should be concerned reinforces fears and conveys sympathy rather than empathy. Choice C is incorrect because telling the client not to worry and just concentrate on labor denies the client's feelings and cuts off communication. Choice D is incorrect as telling the client not to worry because care has improved denies the client's feelings and provides false reassurance.
5. A 30-year-old woman is scheduled for a total abdominal hysterectomy due to noninvasive endometrial cancer. The nurse anticipates the client may have difficulty adjusting emotionally to this type of surgery. Which concern would be the cause of this anticipated difficulty?
- A. Change in femininity
- B. Body image changes
- C. Diminished sexual desire
- D. Slow recovery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Change in femininity.' The removal of the uterus can lead to changes in how some women perceive themselves sexually as it is a reproductive organ. In this young client, there may be heightened feelings of loss of femininity and reproductive potential. Body image changes could occur but are more likely with surgeries involving obvious external changes. Diminished sexual desire is unlikely in a premenopausal woman unless she has specific concerns. Slow recovery is not expected in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old woman undergoing this surgery.
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