NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to walk to the bathroom and do not leave the client alone.
- B. Request that the UAP assist the client onto a bedpan.
- C. Ask if the client needs to have a bowel movement or void.
- D. Assess the client's bladder to determine if the client needs to urinate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.
2. A female adolescent has anorexia nervosa and is malnourished and severely underweight. Which statement indicates that she is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior?
- A. "I'm huge; I'm as big as a house."
- B. "I get straight A's in all my subjects."
- C. "My mother keeps trying to get me to eat."
- D. "My hair is beginning to fall out in clumps."
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The statement "My mother keeps trying to get me to eat" indicates that the adolescent is experiencing secondary gains from her behavior. This is because the behavior has garnered attention from her mother, providing a sense of power and control, which are considered secondary gains. The statement "I'm huge; I'm as big as a house" reflects a disturbed body perception and is not related to secondary gains. Getting straight A's in all subjects is an achievement but not a secondary gain related to anorexia nervosa. The hair falling out in clumps is a physical consequence of starvation, not a secondary gain.
3. When a man with dementia is admitted to a long-term care facility, his wife, who appears tired and angry, says in a sarcastic tone, 'Let's see what you can do with him.' Which response is therapeutic?
- A. It sounds like it's been difficult for you.'
- B. I don't understand what you mean.'
- C. 'I have experience with all types of clients.'
- D. It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the caregiver's feelings and challenges without blaming them. Option A, 'It sounds like it's been difficult for you,' shows empathy and opens the channel of communication. Options B and C, 'I don't understand what you mean' and 'I have experience with all types of clients,' are nurse-focused responses that block effective communication. Option D, 'It's too bad you didn't admit him sooner,' is a hostile response that shifts the blame to the caregiver, which is not therapeutic in this situation.
4. A client injured in a motor vehicle accident was brought to the emergency department and taken immediately for a scan. The client's family arrives and asks about the client's condition. Which response would the nurse provide?
- A. Please do not worry; everything will be all right.
- B. I am sorry; I do not have any information about the client.
- C. You will have to wait for the primary health care provider.
- D. Please wait; I will update you as soon as I have any information.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse to provide to the client's family is to assure them that they will be updated as soon as there is relevant information available. This response not only acknowledges the family's concern but also demonstrates the nurse's commitment to keeping them informed. Option A, providing false reassurances, is not advisable as it may impact the family's ability to cope with potential bad news. Option B, stating that the nurse has no information, is not helpful and can cause distress. Option C, directing the family to the primary health care provider, is not ideal as the nurse should strive to communicate directly with the family to establish trust and provide support.
5. Based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement when providing care for an older incontinent client?
- A. Maintain standard precautions.
- B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
- C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in an older incontinent client is to maintain standard precautions. The best way to reduce the risk of infection in vulnerable clients is through proper handwashing and adherence to standard precautions. Option B, initiating contact isolation measures, is excessive unless the client has a confirmed infection requiring isolation. Option C, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, actually increases the risk of infection due to the introduction of a foreign body. Option D, instructing the client in the use of adult diapers, does not directly address the risk of infection and is not as effective as maintaining standard precautions in preventing infection transmission.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access