NCLEX-RN
Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX Questions Quizlet
1. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to walk to the bathroom and do not leave the client alone.
- B. Request that the UAP assist the client onto a bedpan.
- C. Ask if the client needs to have a bowel movement or void.
- D. Assess the client's bladder to determine if the client needs to urinate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.
2. What psychodynamic process is suggested by a client calling the emergency department during a suicide attempt?
- A. A cry for help
- B. A need for attention
- C. Ambivalence about dying
- D. An inability to stick to a decision
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ambivalence about dying.' When a client calls the emergency department during a suicide attempt, it suggests conflicting feelings about living and dying. This act can indicate an unconscious desire to be stopped from dying, showing ambivalence between the wish to die and the wish to live. It is not primarily a cry for attention or a need to punish others. The client's intention of suicide alongside seeking help demonstrates the struggle between life and death, making ambivalence the key psychodynamic process at play.
3. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
- B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
- C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
- D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a postoperative client's respiratory rate increases, it is essential to determine the underlying cause. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can lead to tachypnea (increased respiratory rate). Therefore, the priority intervention is to assess if pain is the contributing factor. Encouraging increased ambulation may worsen oxygen desaturation in a client with a rising respiratory rate. Offering a high-carbohydrate snack is not indicated as it can increase carbon metabolism; instead, consider providing an alternative energy source like Pulmocare liquid supplement. Forcing fluids may exacerbate respiratory congestion in a client with a compromised cardiopulmonary system, potentially leading to fluid overload. Therefore, determining the role of pain in tachypnea is crucial for appropriate management.
4. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?
- A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
- B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
- C. Massage the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence.
- D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is beneficial in reducing contractures around joints, maintaining joint mobility, and preventing stiffness in immobile clients. This intervention helps preserve muscle strength and joint function. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because: Option B suggesting decreasing fluid intake to prevent diarrhea is not relevant to preventing complications of immobility and could lead to dehydration; Option C, massaging the client's legs to reduce embolism occurrence, is not a recommended practice as massage can dislodge blood clots and increase the risk of embolism; Option D, turning the client from side to back every shift, is not sufficient as it does not address the need for maintaining joint mobility and preventing contractures in immobile clients.
5. Which initial response would the nurse make to a 67-year-old man with type 2 diabetes who sadly confides in the nurse that he has been unable to have an erection for several years?
- A. 'At your age, sex isn't that important.''
- B. ''That is a natural occurrence at your age.''
- C. ''You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.''
- D. 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is, 'You sound upset about not being able to have an erection.' When a client discloses personal information, the nurse should respond in a non-judgmental manner to encourage further communication and gather more details. This response demonstrates empathy and understanding, opening the door for the patient to express his feelings and concerns. Choice A, 'At your age, sex isn't that important,' is dismissive and fails to address the client's emotions or concerns, potentially hindering open communication. Choice B, 'That is a natural occurrence at your age,' provides inaccurate information as the inability to have an erection is not considered a normal part of aging. Choice D, 'Maybe it's time for you to speak to your primary health care provider about this,' while important eventually, should not be the initial response as the nurse should first explore the client's feelings and concerns before discussing potential referrals or interventions.
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