Nursing Elites

1. An older client who had abdominal surgery 3 days earlier was given a barbiturate for sleep and is now requesting to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assist the client to walk to the bathroom and do not leave the client alone.
• B. Request that the UAP assist the client onto a bedpan.
• C. Ask if the client needs to have a bowel movement or void.
• D. Assess the client's bladder to determine if the client needs to urinate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Barbiturates cause central nervous system (CNS) depression, increasing the risk of falls. Therefore, the nurse should assist the client to the bathroom to ensure safety. Using a bedpan is not necessary if the client can safely walk to the bathroom. Asking about bowel movements or voiding, as in option C, is irrelevant to the immediate safety concern of assisting the client to the bathroom. Assessing the client's bladder, as in option D, is unnecessary in this situation as there is no indication that the client cannot communicate his or her needs effectively. The priority here is to prevent falls and ensure the client's safety while assisting to the bathroom.

2. Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of dementia of the Alzheimer type?

• A. There is a genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters.
• B. The dementia is transient and secondary to a physical imbalance or disorder.
• C. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion of select areas of the brain cause tissue damage.
• D. The presence of amyloid plaques is associated with brain tissue destruction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In Alzheimer's disease, the accumulation of amyloid plaques in the brain is a hallmark feature. These plaques are associated with the destruction of brain tissue, contributing to the cognitive decline seen in dementia. Genetic predisposition and dysregulation of neurotransmitters are factors linked to the development of Alzheimer's disease, but the primary pathology lies in the amyloid plaques. Transient dementia is not characteristic of Alzheimer's disease, which is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder. Hypoxia and decreased perfusion are more typical of vascular dementia, where blood flow to the brain is compromised.

3. When observing an infant lying quietly in the bassinet with eyes open wide, what action should the nurse take in response to the infant's behavior?

• A. Brightening the lights in the room
• B. Encouraging the mother to talk to her baby
• C. Wrapping and then turning the infant to the side
• D. Beginning physical and behavioral assessments

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an infant is lying quietly in a bassinet with eyes open wide, it indicates a quiet, alert state. This state is optimal for infant stimulation and interaction. Bright lights can be disturbing to newborns and may disrupt the mother-infant interaction. Wrapping and turning the infant to the side is typically done for a sleeping infant. While physical and behavioral assessments are important, in this scenario, the priority is to encourage mother-infant bonding and communication, as it is a valuable opportunity for interaction and stimulation.

4. A terminally ill client repeatedly talks about her son's upcoming wedding and how much she wants to attend. Which stage of the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying is the client displaying?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is displaying the stage of bargaining in the K�bler-Ross theory of death and dying. During the bargaining stage, individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or a different outcome in the face of impending death. In this scenario, the client expressing a desire to attend her son's wedding and discussing it frequently reflects a form of bargaining for additional time to be present for the event. Anger, on the other hand, involves extreme expressions of emotion ranging from irritation to rage. Denial is characterized by an inability to accept the reality of the situation. Acceptance signifies coming to terms with the circumstances and may lead to decreased interest in people and surroundings.

5. Which of the following medications would NOT be an appropriate prn medication for use during an episode of aggression or violence for the patient with a psychiatric diagnosis?

• A. Olanzapine
• B. Meperidine
• C. Ziprasidone
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid used to treat pain and is not suitable for managing aggressive or violent behavior in patients with psychiatric diagnoses. Olanzapine, ziprasidone, and haloperidol are appropriate choices for managing aggression or violence. Olanzapine and ziprasidone are second-generation antipsychotic medications, while haloperidol is a traditional antipsychotic. These medications have demonstrated effectiveness in managing aggressive behavior, with or without the adjunctive use of a benzodiazepine. Meperidine's primary indication is for pain relief, making it unsuitable for managing psychiatric-related aggression or violence.

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