Nursing Elites

1. Which defense mechanism is considered a conscious measure used to cope with anxiety?

• A. Undoing
• B. Projection
• C. Suppression
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Suppression. Suppression is a conscious defense mechanism in which an individual intentionally avoids thinking about disturbing problems, wishes, feelings, or experiences. It is a way to cope with anxiety by actively pushing aside unwanted thoughts or emotions. Undoing, on the other hand, is an unconscious defense mechanism where one uses words or behaviors to symbolically make amends for unacceptable thoughts or actions. Projection is also an unconscious defense mechanism involving falsely attributing one's own unacceptable impulses to others. Intellectualization, another unconscious defense mechanism, involves using intellect or thinking to avoid dealing with emotionally charged feelings.

2. The client prepares to insert a nasogastric tube in a client with hyperemesis who is awake and alert. Which intervention(s) is(are) correct?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler position.
• B. Assist the client in assuming a left side-lying position.
• C. Measure the tube from the tip of the nose to the xiphoid process.
• D. Assist the client in flexing the neck forward to facilitate tube insertion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention during nasogastric tube insertion in an awake and alert client is to place them in a high Fowler position (A). Left side-lying position (B) is more suitable for unconscious or obtunded clients. When measuring the tube length, it should be from the tip of the nose to behind the ear, and then from behind the ear to the xiphoid process (C). Assisting the client in flexing the neck forward (D) is appropriate to facilitate tube insertion rather than extending the neck back, which may lead to complications. Proper positioning and measurements are crucial to prevent complications and ensure successful nasogastric tube placement.

3. A male client is laughing at a television program with his wife when the evening nurse enters the room. He says his foot is hurting and he would like a pain pill. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime so the pill can help him sleep.
• C. Attend to the acutely ill client's needs first because this client is laughing.
• D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining a subjective estimate of the pain experience by asking the client to rate his pain helps the nurse determine which pain medication should be administered and also provides a baseline for evaluating the effectiveness of the medication. Medicating for pain should not be delayed to use it as a sleep medication, so encouraging him to wait until bedtime is incorrect. Option C is judgmental and inappropriate as all clients deserve prompt attention. Option D should be used as an adjunct to pain medication, not instead of medication, so instructing him in deep breathing exercises alone is not the priority in this situation.

4. The nurse selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the nurse use to identify the placement of the IV access?

• A. Left brachial vein
• B. Right cephalic vein
• C. Dorsal side of the right wrist
• D. Right upper extremity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large and superficial vein commonly used for IV access. Documenting the specific anatomic name of the vein used for IV access, such as the cephalic vein, is essential for accurate medical records. Option A, the left brachial vein, is incorrect as the brachial vein is too deep to be accessed for IV infusion. Option C, the dorsal side of the right wrist, is not a recommended IV access site due to fragile veins and potential pain for the patient. Option D, right upper extremity, is too broad and lacks the specificity necessary for precise documentation of the IV access site.

5. A client is undergoing treatment for alcoholism. Twelve hours after their last drink, they develop tremors, increased heart rate, hallucinations, and seizures. Which stage of withdrawal is this client experiencing?

• A. Stage 1
• B. Stage 2
• C. Stage 3
• D. Stage 4

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In alcohol withdrawal, stage 3 typically begins about 12-48 hours after the last drink. It includes symptoms from stages 1 and 2 like tremors, tachycardia, mild hallucinations, hyperactivity, and confusion. By stage 3, severe hallucinations and seizures can occur. Choice A, stage 1, is too early for the described symptoms. Stage 2, as described, is also too early as it typically occurs within 6-12 hours. Stage 4 is not a recognized stage in alcohol withdrawal protocols.

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