a 20 year old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days she states i have been told that it is harmful to b a 20 year old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days she states i have been told that it is harmful to b
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX NCLEX-RN

Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX RN Questions

1. A 20-year-old female client with noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.

Rationale: The correct answer is to teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client. While respecting the client's beliefs, it is essential to provide education on maintaining hygiene during menstruation. This empowers the client with knowledge to make informed decisions. Options A and B can be considered after providing education. Option C, obtaining brochures, is not the priority as direct communication and teaching would be more effective in addressing the client's concerns.

2. A patient is bleeding profusely from an injury near her wrist. Which of the following first aid procedures would be MOST appropriate?

Correct answer: Place pressure on her brachial artery.

Rationale: The most appropriate first aid procedure for a patient bleeding profusely from an injury near the wrist is to place pressure on her brachial artery. Applying pressure to the brachial pulse point will help slow down the bleeding. Placing a tourniquet on her arm above the injury is not recommended as it could potentially inhibit blood flow, leading to tissue necrosis. Pressing on the radial nerve or covering the bleeding area with wet towels are not effective in controlling bleeding and may not address the underlying cause.

3. Which of the following conditions increases a client's risk of aspiration of stomach contents?

Correct answer: A client is in restraints

Rationale: A client in restraints is at an increased risk of aspiration of stomach contents. When a client is restrained, they may be unable to effectively move or turn their body if they begin to vomit, which can lead to aspiration. This lack of mobility can hinder their ability to protect their airway. On the other hand, a scaphoid abdomen, which is sunken or hollowed, is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Additionally, lying prone, facing downward, does not necessarily increase the risk of aspiration, as aspiration is more likely when lying supine (facing upward). Therefore, the correct answer is that a client is in restraints.

4. Your elderly patient has a temperature of 98.5 degrees. Is there anything else that a nurse should do, in addition to documenting this temperature?

Correct answer: No, this temperature is within normal limits.

Rationale: No, there is nothing else that a nurse should do. A temperature of 98.5 degrees for an elderly patient falls within normal limits. Other choices are incorrect because the temperature is not hyperthermic (abnormally high) or hypothermic (abnormally low), making choices B, C, and D inaccurate responses in this scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-op day #1 after a total hip replacement. Although the client was alert with a normal affect in the morning, by lunchtime, the nurse notes the client is confused, has slurred speech, and is having trouble with her balance. Her blood glucose level is 48 mg/dl. What is the next action of the nurse?

Correct answer: Give the client 6 oz. of orange juice

Rationale: A client with a blood glucose level of 48 mg/dl is experiencing significant hypoglycemia, as manifested by confusion, balance difficulties, and slurred speech. The nurse should work to correct this situation as rapidly as possible. The first measure that can be performed quickly and will have fast results is to give the client something to eat or drink that contains glucose, such as 6 oz. of orange juice. Administering a bolus of D20W through the IV (Choice B) would be too aggressive and could lead to complications in this scenario. Administering regular insulin (Choice C) would further lower the blood glucose level, worsening the client's symptoms. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but immediate intervention to raise the blood glucose level is crucial to address the client's hypoglycemia.

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