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1. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes
- B. loss of reproductive ability
- C. headaches
- D. heart palpitations
Correct answer: loss of reproductive ability
Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.
2. The healthcare provider sustains a needle puncture that requires HIV prophylaxis. Which of the following medication regimens should be used?
- A. an antibiotic such as Metronidazole and a protease inhibitor (Saquinavir)
- B. two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- C. one protease inhibitor such as Nelfinavir
- D. two protease inhibitors
Correct answer: two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Rationale: In the scenario of a needle puncture requiring HIV prophylaxis, the CDC recommends initiating treatment with two non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, unless there is drug resistance. This regimen is preferred over other options such as a single protease inhibitor or two protease inhibitors due to its effectiveness and safety profile in this specific context. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors are commonly used in post-exposure prophylaxis due to their activity against HIV and lower risk of resistance development compared to other antiretroviral drug classes.
3. A paraplegic client is in the hospital to be treated for an electrolyte imbalance. Which level of care is the client currently receiving?
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. health promotion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. The client is currently receiving secondary prevention care. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection of disease, prompt intervention, and health maintenance for clients experiencing health problems. In this case, the electrolyte imbalance is a health problem that requires treatment to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because primary prevention is focused on health promotion and specific protections against illness before it occurs, tertiary prevention is aimed at helping rehabilitate clients after the illness is diagnosed and treated, and health promotion is a broader concept that includes activities aimed at improving overall health and well-being rather than targeting a specific health problem like an electrolyte imbalance.
4. Which of the following organs of the digestive system has a primary function of absorption?
- A. stomach
- B. pancreas
- C. small intestine
- D. gallbladder
Correct answer: small intestine
Rationale: The small intestine is the correct answer. It is the primary organ responsible for absorption in the digestive system. The stomach's primary function is to break down food through mechanical and chemical digestion. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes to aid in the breakdown of food. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, which helps in the digestion of fats. However, neither the stomach, pancreas, nor gallbladder play the primary role of absorption in the digestive process, making them incorrect choices.
5. A 13-year-old girl is admitted to the ER with lower right abdominal discomfort. What should the admitting nurse do first?
- A. Administer Loritab to the patient for pain relief.
- B. Place the patient in a right sidelying position for pressure relief.
- C. Start a Central Line.
- D. Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.
Correct answer: Provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication.
Rationale: In a case of lower right abdominal discomfort, the first step should be to provide pain reduction techniques without administering medication. Administering pain medication or starting a central line should not be done without medical orders. Placing the patient in a right sidelying position may help with pressure relief, but addressing pain reduction techniques without medication is the initial priority in this scenario. It is essential to assess the patient further, consult with a healthcare provider, and follow the appropriate protocols before administering any medication or invasive procedures like starting a central line.
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