all of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep

1. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.

2. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

3. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

4. When examining the abdomen, a nurse auscultates before palpating and percussing the abdomen. The nurse performs the assessment in this manner for which reason?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When performing an abdominal assessment, the nurse auscultates the abdomen after inspection. Auscultation is done before palpation and percussion because these assessment techniques can increase peristalsis, which would yield a false interpretation of bowel sounds. This sequence helps prevent false interpretations of bowel sounds due to increased peristalsis caused by palpation and percussion. Options A, C, and D provide incorrect reasons for auscultating the abdomen before palpating and percussing it.

5. An older client reports that she has been awakening during the night, awakes early in the morning and is unable to fall back to sleep, and feels sleepy during the daytime. Based on these reported data, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age-related changes in sleep include reduced sleep efficiency, increased incidence of nocturnal awakening, increased incidence of early-morning awakening, and increased daytime sleepiness. Since the reported data are normal age-related changes, the appropriate action for the nurse would be to document the findings in the medical record. Reporting the findings to the registered nurse is unnecessary as these changes are expected with aging and do not indicate a need for immediate intervention. Prescribing sedatives should be avoided as a first-line approach due to potential side effects and risks, especially in older adults. Encouraging the consumption of stimulants like caffeinated beverages during the daytime may further disrupt sleep patterns, which is counterproductive in addressing the client's reported sleep issues.

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