Nursing Elites

1. After performing an assessment of an infant with bladder exstrophy, the nurse prepares a plan of care. The nurse identifies which problem as the priority for the infant?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Impaired tissue integrity
• C. Inability to suck and swallow
• D. Lack of knowledge about the disease (parents)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In bladder exstrophy, the bladder is exposed and external to the body, leading to impaired tissue integrity related to the exposed bladder mucosa as the priority problem. Urinary incontinence is not a concern as the infant is not yet toilet trained. Inability to suck and swallow is unrelated to the disorder. While educating the parents about the condition is important, it is not the priority over addressing the immediate risk of impaired tissue integrity in the infant.

2. The parent of an infant diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease is receiving feeding instructions from the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse give to the parent to assist in reducing the episodes of emesis?

• A. Provide smaller, more frequent feedings.
• B. Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
• C. Thin the feedings by adding water to the formula.
• D. Thicken the feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gastroesophageal reflux disease involves the backward flow of gastric contents into the esophagus due to sphincter issues. To reduce episodes of emesis, it is recommended to thicken feedings by adding rice cereal to the formula. This helps to weigh down the contents in the stomach, making regurgitation less likely. Providing smaller, more frequent feedings and burping the infant frequently are beneficial strategies for gastroesophageal reflux. However, in this case, thickening the feedings is the most appropriate intervention. Thinning the feedings by adding water to the formula is not recommended as it can decrease the caloric density of the formula and may not help in reducing reflux.

3. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

4. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
• B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
• C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.

5. A client is brought into the emergency room where the physician suspects that he has cardiac tamponade. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse would expect to see which of the following signs or symptoms in this client?

• A. Fever, fatigue, malaise
• B. Hypotension and distended neck veins
• C. Cough and hemoptysis
• D. Numbness and tingling in the extremities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cardiac tamponade occurs when fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardium, preventing the heart from contracting properly. This leads to decreased cardiac output and is considered a medical emergency. Classic signs of cardiac tamponade include hypotension (low blood pressure) and distended neck veins due to the increased pressure around the heart. These signs result from the compromised ability of the heart to pump effectively. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with cardiac tamponade. Fever, fatigue, and malaise are non-specific symptoms that can be seen in various conditions. Cough and hemoptysis are more commonly associated with respiratory conditions, while numbness and tingling in the extremities are neurological symptoms not typically seen in cardiac tamponade.

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