Nursing Elites

1. A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation?

• A. Assist the doctor while he sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand.
• B. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches.
• C. Wrap a gauze around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room.
• D. Tell the patient to go to the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Penetrating wounds that leave an object behind may have damaged important blood vessels. Removing the object may lead to significant bleeding. The correct approach is to gently wrap the wound with the object in place to help control bleeding and prevent further injury. The patient should be taken promptly to the nearest emergency room where healthcare professionals can safely and appropriately remove the object and provide necessary treatment. Choice A is incorrect because removing the pencil without proper medical evaluation can worsen the injury. Choice B is incorrect because pulling out the object can cause additional damage and bleeding. Choice D is incorrect because giving aspirin without knowing the extent of the injury and causing potential drug interactions can be harmful.

2. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?

• A. It is the correct dose
• B. The dose is too low
• C. The dose is too high
• D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day. This child weighs 30 kg, so the calculated dose would be 5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 150 mg/day. Since the prescription is for 25 mg 3 times a day, the total daily dose is 25 mg x 3 = 75 mg/day, which is lower than the calculated dose of 150 mg/day. Therefore, the prescribed dose of 25 mg 3 times a day is too low for this child. The dose should be adjusted to meet the correct dosage of 150 mg/day, which would be 50 mg 3 times a day. It is important not to titrate the dosage based on symptoms without consulting a physician, as this can lead to inappropriate medication administration.

3. While receiving normal saline infusions to treat a GI bleed, the nurse notes that the patient's lower legs have become edematous and auscultates crackles in the lungs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the saline infusion immediately
• B. Notify the physician
• C. Elevate the patient's legs
• D. Continue the infusion, as these findings are normal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the saline infusion immediately. The patient is showing signs of fluid volume overload due to rapid fluid replacement, indicated by lower leg edema and lung crackles. Continuing the infusion could worsen the overload and potentially lead to complications. Notifying the physician is important but should come after stopping the infusion to address the immediate issue. Elevating the patient's legs may help with edema but is not the priority in this situation. Continuing the infusion when the patient is already showing signs of fluid overload is contraindicated and can be harmful.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient in the ICU who has had a spinal cord injury. She observes that his last blood pressure was 100/55, and his pulse is 48. These have both trended downwards from the baseline. What should the nurse expect to be the next course of action ordered by the physician?

• A. Assess the patient for decreased level of consciousness
• B. Administer Normal Saline
• C. Insert an NG Tube
• D. Connect and read an EKG

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient is entering neurogenic shock due to the spinal cord injury, leading to hypotension and bradycardia. Administering Normal Saline is essential to replace fluid volume, which can help in treating the hypotension and bradycardia symptomatically. This intervention aims to stabilize the patient's cardiovascular status. Assessing for decreased level of consciousness (Choice A) may be important but addressing the hemodynamic instability takes precedence. Inserting an NG Tube (Choice C) and connecting and reading an EKG (Choice D) are not the immediate actions required for the presenting symptoms of hypotension and bradycardia.

5. A client in the ICU has been intubated and placed on a ventilator. The physician orders synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Which statement best describes the work of this mode of ventilation?

• A. The ventilator delivers a set rate and tidal volume regardless of whether the client is attempting to breathe
• B. The ventilator coordinates delivered breaths with the client's respiratory efforts
• C. The ventilator provides a supplemental breath for every third breath of the client
• D. The ventilator provides breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) is a ventilation mode that coordinates delivered breaths with the client's own respiratory efforts. This mode allows the client to initiate breaths, with the ventilator providing preset breaths at a controlled rate and volume. Option A is incorrect because in SIMV, the ventilator syncs with the client's respiratory efforts. Option C is incorrect as it does not accurately depict the way SIMV works. Option D is also incorrect as SIMV does not specifically provide breaths during the expiratory phase of the client's respirations. Therefore, the correct answer is B, where the ventilator coordinates breath delivery with the client's breathing efforts.

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