NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. An 80-year-old patient is admitted with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, and distended neck veins. As the nurse monitors the patient, he becomes increasingly short of breath and begins to have cardiac dysrhythmias. The most critical intervention for this patient is to:
- A. Ensure his airway is open and unobstructed.
- B. Apply oxygen to maintain his oxygen saturation above 94%.
- C. Administer Dobutamine to increase cardiac output.
- D. Start an IV for monitoring fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient presenting with dyspnea, dependent edema, rales, distended neck veins, and developing cardiac dysrhythmias, the priority intervention is to ensure the airway is open and unobstructed. Maintaining an open airway is crucial for adequate ventilation and oxygenation, especially in a patient showing signs of impending respiratory distress and cardiac compromise. While applying oxygen to maintain oxygen saturation is important, ensuring airway patency takes precedence as it directly impacts the patient's ability to breathe. Administering Dobutamine may be necessary to improve cardiac output; however, addressing the airway first is essential to prevent further respiratory distress and worsening dysrhythmias. Starting an IV for monitoring fluid intake is not the most critical intervention in this scenario compared to ensuring airway patency and oxygenation.
2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) value is 615 pg/ml. What would the healthcare provider take as the priority action?
- A. Call for a cardiac evaluation and implement appropriate measures
- B. Check the patient's oxygen saturation
- C. Inform the physician about the elevated BNP level
- D. Encourage the patient to limit physical activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated BNP level is indicative of decreased cardiac output, suggesting potential heart failure. In this scenario, the priority action is to check the patient's oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation assessment is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and respiratory function, which is essential in managing cardiac conditions. Calling for a cardiac evaluation and implementing appropriate measures may be necessary but is not the immediate priority without assessing oxygen saturation. Informing the physician about the elevated BNP level can be important for further management but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Encouraging the patient to limit physical activity might be a consideration later but is not the priority action when dealing with a potential cardiac emergency.
3. In a 24-year-old woman, the term used to define uterine bleeding in which there is no menstruation is:
- A. Oligomenorrhea
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Menorrhagia
- D. Metrorrhagia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the correct term for the absence of menstrual periods in a woman of childbearing age. It is typically defined as no menstruation for at least three consecutive cycles or six months. Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual periods rather than complete absence. Menorrhagia is characterized by excessive menstrual bleeding, not the absence of menstruation. Metrorrhagia involves irregular, acyclic bleeding between menstrual periods, which is different from the absence of menstruation.
4. Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
- A. 23 year-old in traction for fractured femur
- B. 72 year-old with peripheral vascular disease, who is unable to walk without assistance
- C. 75 year-old with left sided paresthesia and is incontinent of urine and stool
- D. 30 year-old who is comatose following a ruptured aneurysm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Risk factors for pressure ulcers include: immobility, absence of sensation, decreased LOC, poor nutrition and hydration, skin moisture, incontinence, increased age, decreased immune response. This client has the greatest number of risk factors.
5. A patient with acute shortness of breath is admitted to the hospital. Which action should the nurse take during the initial assessment of the patient?
- A. Ask the patient to lie down to complete a full physical assessment.
- B. Briefly ask specific questions about this episode of respiratory distress.
- C. Complete the admission database to check for allergies before treatment.
- D. Delay the physical assessment to first complete pulmonary function tests.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, the initial assessment should focus on gathering specific information relevant to the current episode of respiratory distress. A comprehensive health history or full physical examination can be deferred until the acute distress has been addressed. Asking specific questions helps determine the cause of the distress and guides appropriate treatment. While checking for allergies is important, completing the entire admission database is not a priority during the initial assessment. Likewise, delaying the physical assessment for pulmonary function tests is not recommended as the immediate focus should be on addressing the acute respiratory distress before ordering further diagnostic tests or interventions.
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