Nursing Elites

1. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?

• A. Fever and rash
• B. Circumoral cyanosis
• C. Elevated glucose levels
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

2. The nurse provides preoperative instruction for a patient scheduled for a left pneumonectomy for lung cancer. Which information should the nurse include about the patient's postoperative care?

• A. Positioning on the right side
• B. Bed rest for the first 24 hours
• C. Frequent use of an incentive spirometer
• D. Chest tube placement with continuous drainage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, frequent deep breathing and coughing are essential to prevent atelectasis and promote gas exchange. Patients are typically positioned on the surgical side to aid in gas exchange. Early mobilization is crucial to reduce the risk of postoperative complications such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombosis. While chest tubes may or may not be placed in the surgical space, if used, they are clamped and only adjusted by the surgeon to manage serosanguineous fluid accumulation. Overfilling of the chest cavity can compromise remaining lung function and cardiovascular status. Chest x-rays are useful for monitoring fluid volume and space postoperatively. Therefore, the correct postoperative care instruction for the patient undergoing a left pneumonectomy is the frequent use of an incentive spirometer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as positioning on the right side, bed rest for the first 24 hours, and continuous chest tube drainage are not standard postoperative care practices for patients undergoing pneumonectomy.

3. The healthcare provider is educating a parent about side effects of routine immunizations. Which of the following must be reported immediately?

• A. Irritability
• B. Slight edema at the injection site
• C. Local tenderness
• D. Temperature of 102.5?F

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 102.5°F or higher following immunization is considered an adverse reaction and should be reported immediately. This could indicate a more serious systemic response to the vaccine. Irritability, slight edema at the injection site, and local tenderness are common, mild side effects of routine immunizations and do not typically require immediate reporting. Other reactions that should be reported immediately include excessive crying for more than 3 hours, seizure activity, and the presence of tender, swollen, or reddened areas at the injection site.

4. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a patient's transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) placed 3 months ago has been effective?

• A. Increased serum albumin level
• B. Decreased indirect bilirubin level
• C. Improved alertness and orientation
• D. Fewer episodes of bleeding varices

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fewer episodes of bleeding varices.' A transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is used to reduce pressure in the portal venous system, thus decreasing the risk of bleeding from esophageal varices. This outcome would indicate the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. The other choices are incorrect because: Increased serum albumin level and decreased indirect bilirubin level are not direct indicators of TIPS effectiveness. Improved alertness and orientation could be influenced by various factors and may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the TIPS procedure. Additionally, TIPS can actually increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy, which contradicts the choice of improved alertness and orientation.

5. Which of the following interventions should the nurse use when working with a Jackson-Pratt drain?

• A. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing back toward the client
• B. Empty the drain when the amount of fluid reaches 25 cc
• C. Strip the tubing to remove clots by milking the tubing away from the client
• D. Maintain the level of the drain above the client's incision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A Jackson-Pratt drain is a type of active wound drain that may be placed following a surgical procedure. This drain actively draws excess blood and fluid out of the wound. If clots develop within the tubing, the nurse should strip the tubing by milking it in a direction away from the client. This action helps to ensure the drain remains patent and effective. Option A is incorrect because the tubing should be milked away from the client, not towards. Option B is incorrect as the drain should be emptied based on the healthcare provider's orders, not at a fixed volume. Option D is incorrect because the level of the drain should be below the level of the incision to allow drainage by gravity.

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