Nursing Elites

1. A client is seen for testing to rule out Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. Which of the following signs or symptoms is associated with this condition?

• A. Fever and rash
• B. Circumoral cyanosis
• C. Elevated glucose levels
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Fever and rash.' Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSP) is caused by the R. rickettsii pathogen, which damages blood vessels. Patients with RMSP typically present with fever, edema, and a rash that initially appears on the hands and feet before spreading across the body. The disease manifests following a tick bite. Choice A is correct as fever and rash are key indicators of RMSP. Circumoral cyanosis (choice B) is not typically associated with RMSP; it refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth and is more indicative of oxygen deprivation. Elevated glucose levels (choice C) are not specific signs of RMSP. Therefore, choice D, 'All of the above,' is incorrect since only choice A, 'Fever and rash,' is associated with Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?

• A. Narrowed QRS complex
• B. Shortened "PR"? interval
• C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
• D. Prominent "U"? waves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.

3. A patient with right lower-lobe pneumonia has been treated with IV antibiotics for 3 days. Which assessment data obtained by the nurse indicates that the treatment has been effective?

• A. Bronchial breath sounds are heard at the right base.
• B. The patient coughs up small amounts of green mucus.
• C. The patients white blood cell (WBC) count is 9000/L
• D. Increased tactile fremitus is palpable over the right chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal WBC count indicates that the antibiotics have been effective. All the other data suggest that a change in treatment is needed.

4. A 4-year-old hospitalized child begins to have a seizure while playing with hard plastic toys in the hallway. Of the following nursing actions, which one should the nurse do first?

• A. Place the child in the nearest bed
• B. Administer IV medication to slow down the seizure
• C. Place a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth
• D. Remove the child's toys from the immediate area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority nursing actions are to ensure the safety of the child and maintain airway patency. Placing objects in the child's mouth, like a padded tongue blade, is not recommended as it can lead to injury or obstruction of the airway. Moving the child to a bed is also not the immediate priority during a seizure. Administering IV medication to slow down the seizure is not typically done as the initial action. Therefore, the correct first nursing action is to remove any potential hazards, such as the hard plastic toys, from the immediate area to prevent injury during the seizure.

5. The parents of a newborn have been told that their child was born with bladder exstrophy, and the parents ask the nurse about this condition. Which explanation, given by the parents, indicates understanding of this condition?

• A. ''It's a hereditary disorder that occurs in every other generation.''
• B. ''It is caused by the use of medications taken by the mother during pregnancy.''
• C. ''It is a condition in which the urinary bladder is abnormally located in the pelvic cavity.''
• D. ''It's an extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bladder exstrophy is a congenital anomaly characterized by the extrusion of the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall. The cause of bladder exstrophy is not precisely known, but it is believed to be due to a developmental abnormality during embryogenesis. The condition is more common in male newborns. Choice A is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not a hereditary disorder that occurs in every other generation. Choice B is incorrect as bladder exstrophy is not caused by medications taken by the mother during pregnancy. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the condition inaccurately; it is not just an abnormal location of the bladder in the pelvic cavity, but rather an extrusion of the bladder outside the body through a defect in the lower abdominal wall.

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