Nursing Elites

1. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as:

• A. Normotensive
• B. Prehypertension
• C. Stage I hypertension
• D. Stage II hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg falls within the range of 140-159 mm Hg, which is classified as Stage I hypertension. Normotensive individuals have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg, making choice A incorrect. Prehypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure ranging from 120-139 mm Hg, excluding choice B. Stage II hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct classification for a systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is Stage I hypertension.

2. A patient experiences a chest wall contusion as a result of being struck in the chest with a baseball bat. The emergency department nurse would be most concerned if which finding is observed during the initial assessment?

• A. Paradoxic chest movement
• B. Complaint of chest wall pain
• C. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute
• D. Large bruised area on the chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paradoxic chest movement is the most concerning finding as it indicates a potential flail chest, which can lead to severe compromise in gas exchange and rapid hypoxemia. This condition requires immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress. Complaint of chest wall pain, a slightly elevated heart rate, and a large bruised area on the chest are important assessment findings but may not immediately threaten gas exchange or respiratory function. Therefore, identifying paradoxic chest movement is critical for prompt intervention and management.

3. A patient is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) of the chest with contrast media. Which assessment finding should the nurse immediately report to the health care provider?

• A. Patient is claustrophobic.
• B. Patient is allergic to shellfish.
• C. Patient recently used a bronchodilator inhaler.
• D. Patient is not able to remove a wedding band.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is allergic to shellfish. This is crucial because the contrast media used in CT scans is iodine-based, and individuals with iodine allergies, such as those allergic to shellfish, are at risk of adverse reactions. It is important to identify and address this allergy to prevent potential complications. The other options do not directly impact the safety or effectiveness of the CT scan with contrast media. Claustrophobia can be managed with patient support, the recent use of a bronchodilator inhaler does not typically affect the CT procedure, and not being able to remove a wedding band is not a critical concern for the scan itself.

4. The nurse palpates the posterior chest while the patient says 99 and notes absent fremitus. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Auscultate anterior and posterior breath sounds bilaterally
• B. Encourage the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe
• C. Review the chest x-ray report for evidence of pneumonia
• D. Palpate the anterior chest and observe for barrel chest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess for tactile fremitus, the nurse should use the palms of the hands to assess for vibration when the patient repeats a word or phrase such as '99'. After noting absent fremitus, the nurse should then auscultate the lungs to assess for the presence or absence of breath sounds. Absent fremitus may be noted with conditions like pneumothorax or atelectasis. The vibration is increased in conditions such as pneumonia, lung tumors, thick bronchial secretions, and pleural effusion. Encouraging the patient to turn, cough, and deep breathe is an appropriate intervention for atelectasis, but assessing breath sounds takes priority. Fremitus is decreased if the hand is farther from the lung or the lung is hyperinflated (barrel chest). Palpating the anterior chest for fremitus is less effective due to the presence of large muscles and breast tissue, making auscultation a more appropriate next step.

5. When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?

• A. Osteomyelitis is a gradual breakdown and weakening of your bones. It's most often age-related.
• B. Osteomyelitis is caused by not having enough Vitamin D, which in turn causes your bones to be softer and demineralized.
• C. Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone. It can be caused by bacteria reaching your bone from outside or inside your body.
• D. This is a question that should be directed to your healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice. Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis. Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.

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