each small square on the ekg paper is

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Predictor Exam

1. Each small square on the EKG paper is:

A. 0.04 seconds long and 5mm tall
B. 0.2 seconds long and 5mm tall
C. 0.04 seconds long and 20mm tall
D. 0.04 seconds long and 1mm tall

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Each small square on an EKG paper represents 0.04 seconds long and 1mm tall. This standardization is essential for accurate measurements. One large square on EKG paper consists of 5 small squares in length and 5 small squares in height, which equals 0.2 seconds long and 5mm tall (0.5 mV). Choice A is incorrect because while the duration is correct, the height mentioned is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as it provides the correct height but the duration is inaccurate. Choice C is incorrect as the height mentioned is exaggerated, and the duration is correct but the height is not. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.04 seconds long and 1mm tall.

2. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

3. A nurse is preparing to insert a small-bore nasogastric feeding tube for a client's enteral feedings. In which method does the nurse measure the correct length of the tube?

A. From the tip of the nose to the xiphoid process
B. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
C. From the earlobe to the xiphoid process
D. From the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the umbilicus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When preparing to insert a nasogastric tube, the nurse must measure the correct length to ensure that the end of the tube will be in the correct position in the stomach. The accurate method to measure the length is from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process. This length ensures that the end of the tube reaches the stomach, avoiding placement in the small intestine or esophagus. Choice A is incorrect as it does not include the earlobe, which is essential for accurate measurement. Choice C is incorrect because measuring from the earlobe alone does not provide the correct length for positioning in the stomach. Choice D is incorrect as it includes the umbilicus, which is not the appropriate landmark for measuring the length of a nasogastric tube intended for stomach placement.

4. Which of the following may represent an upper airway obstruction?

A. Retractions
B. Elongated expiratory phase
C. Stridor
D. Expiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stridor is the sound produced by turbulent airflow through a partially obstructed upper airway. It is a classic sign of upper airway obstruction. While an elongated expiratory phase may indicate lower airway obstruction, stridor specifically points to an upper airway issue. Retractions are also often seen in upper airway obstruction due to the increased effort of breathing. Expiratory wheezing, on the other hand, is more indicative of lower airway conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

5. When performing a physical examination, safety must be considered to protect the examiner and the patient against the spread of infection. Which of these statements describes the most appropriate action the nurse would take when performing a physical examination?

A. Washing one's hands after removing gloves is necessary, even if the gloves are still intact
B. Hands are washed before and after every physical patient encounter
C. Hands are washed before the examination of each body system to prevent the spread of bacteria from one part of the body to another
D. Gloves are worn throughout the entire examination to demonstrate concern regarding the spread of infectious diseases

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate action for the nurse to take when performing a physical examination is to wash their hands before and after every physical patient encounter. This practice helps prevent the spread of infection. Hands should also be washed after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions, and after contact with any equipment contaminated with body fluids. It is crucial to wash hands after removing gloves, even if the gloves appear intact. Choice A is incorrect because washing hands after removing gloves is necessary to ensure thorough hygiene. Choice C is incorrect because hands should be washed before and after every patient encounter, not just before examining each body system. Choice D is incorrect because gloves should be worn when there is potential contact with body fluids, but they do not need to be worn throughout the entire examination.