Nursing Elites

1. After a symptom is recognized, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. Which of the following statements is true about self-treatment?

• A. "Not recognized as valuable by most health care providers."?
• B. "Usually ineffective and may delay more effective treatment."?
• C. "Always less expensive than biomedical alternatives."?
• D. "Influenced by the accessibility of over-the-counter medicines."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a symptom is identified, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. The availability of over-the-counter medications, the relatively high literacy level of Americans, and the influence of the internet and mass media in communicating health-related information to the general population have contributed to the high percentage of cases of self-treatment. Health care providers are recognizing the value of a wide variety of alternative, complementary, and traditional interventions. Many self-treatments, such as over-the-counter medications, are effective. Self-treatment is not always less expensive. Choice A is incorrect as health care providers are recognizing the value of self-treatment. Choice B is incorrect because self-treatment can be effective in many cases. Choice C is incorrect as self-treatment is not always less expensive; it depends on the specific treatment being used.

2. While caring for Mrs. Thomas, you see a notation on the nursing care plan that states 'ambulate at least 10 yards qid'. This patient will be assisted with ambulation at which of the following times?

• A. 10:00 AM
• B. 10 am and 2 pm
• C. 10 am and 2 pm
• D. 10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the patient with ambulation at 10 am, 2 pm, 6 pm, and 10 pm as qid stands for four times per day. This schedule is commonly followed in healthcare facilities to ensure regular ambulation and exercise for the patient. Choices A, B, and C do not cover all the specified times for ambulation as indicated by the qid notation on the care plan.

3. Which of the following lists the recommended sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment when preparing to leave a patient's room?

• A. Gown, goggles, mask, gloves, and exit the room.
• B. Gloves, wash hands, remove gown, mask, and goggles.
• C. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.
• D. Gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and wash hands.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing soiled personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. Gloves should always be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. Following the removal of gloves, goggles, gown, mask, and finally washing hands is recommended. Choice A is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice B is incorrect as the sequence is not in the recommended order. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed before goggles.

4. Which technique is correct when assessing the radial pulse of a patient?

• A. Palpate for 1 minute if the rhythm is irregular.
• B. Palpate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4 if the rhythm is regular.
• C. Palpate for 2 full minutes to detect any variation in amplitude.
• D. Palpate for 10 seconds and multiply by 6 if the rhythm is regular and the patient has no history of cardiac abnormalities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing the radial pulse, if the rhythm is irregular, the pulse should be counted for a full minute to get an accurate representation of the pulse rate. In cases where the rhythm is regular, the recommended technique is to palpate for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4 to calculate the beats per minute. This method is more accurate and efficient for normal or rapid heart rates. Palpating for 30 seconds and multiplying by 2 is not as effective, as any error in counting results in a larger discrepancy in the calculated heart rate. Palpating for 2 full minutes is excessive and not necessary for routine pulse assessment. Palpating for 10 seconds and multiplying by 6 is not a standard technique and may lead to inaccuracies, especially in patients with cardiac abnormalities.

5. A resident brings several electronic devices to a nursing home. One of the devices has a two-pronged plug. What rationale should the nurse provide when explaining why an electrical device must have a three-pronged plug?

• A. Controls stray electrical currents.
• B. Promotes efficient use of electricity.
• C. Shuts off the appliance if there is an electrical surge.
• D. Divides the electricity among the appliances in the room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A three-pronged plug functions as a ground to dissipate stray electrical currents. This helps prevent electrical shocks and ensures the safety of the user. Choice B is incorrect because the number of prongs on a plug does not impact the efficient use of electricity. Choice C is incorrect because a three-pronged plug does not shut off the appliance during an electrical surge; that role is typically fulfilled by surge protectors. Choice D is incorrect as a three-pronged plug does not divide electricity among appliances in a room; it primarily serves as a safety measure to handle excess electrical currents.

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