Nursing Elites

1. After a symptom is recognized, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. Which of the following statements is true about self-treatment?

• A. "Not recognized as valuable by most health care providers."?
• B. "Usually ineffective and may delay more effective treatment."?
• C. "Always less expensive than biomedical alternatives."?
• D. "Influenced by the accessibility of over-the-counter medicines."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a symptom is identified, the first effort at treatment is often self-treatment. The availability of over-the-counter medications, the relatively high literacy level of Americans, and the influence of the internet and mass media in communicating health-related information to the general population have contributed to the high percentage of cases of self-treatment. Health care providers are recognizing the value of a wide variety of alternative, complementary, and traditional interventions. Many self-treatments, such as over-the-counter medications, are effective. Self-treatment is not always less expensive. Choice A is incorrect as health care providers are recognizing the value of self-treatment. Choice B is incorrect because self-treatment can be effective in many cases. Choice C is incorrect as self-treatment is not always less expensive; it depends on the specific treatment being used.

2. Which of the following bony landmarks is described as a large, blunt, irregularly shaped process found on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur?

• A. Tubercle
• B. Tuberosity
• C. Condyle
• D. Trochanter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Trochanter. The Greater Trochanter is located on the lateral aspect of the proximal femur and is a large, blunt, irregularly shaped bony process. It serves as an important attachment site for many muscles of the legs, providing leverage and movement. Choice A, Tubercle, is a small rounded projection, usually for the attachment of a ligament or tendon. Choice B, Tuberosity, is a large rounded projection, also typically for muscle attachment. Choice C, Condyle, refers to a rounded articular surface at the end of a bone, usually involved in joints.

3. While performing the physical examination, why does the nurse share information and briefly teach the patient?

• A. To help the patient feel more comfortable and gain control of the situation
• B. To build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner
• C. To assist the patient in understanding his or her disease process and treatment modalities
• D. To aid the patient in identifying questions about his or her disease and potential areas of needed education

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing information and briefly teaching the patient during a physical examination helps build rapport and increase the patient's confidence in the examiner. This approach gives the patient a sense of control in a situation that can often be overwhelming. While sharing information may make the patient feel more comfortable, the primary goal is to enhance the patient's confidence in the examiner. Providing information does not necessarily directly assist the patient in understanding their disease process and treatment modalities, as this may require a more in-depth explanation. The main focus is on establishing a trusting relationship and empowering the patient during the examination, rather than solely aiding in identifying questions or areas needing education.

4. When assessing a patient's pulse, which of the following characteristics would the nurse also notice?

• A. Force
• B. Pallor
• C. Capillary refill time
• D. Timing in the cardiac cycle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's pulse, the nurse should observe characteristics such as rate, rhythm, and force. Force refers to the strength or amplitude of the pulse, which provides important information about cardiac output. Pallor is the paleness of the skin and is not directly related to pulse assessment. Capillary refill time is used to assess peripheral perfusion and is not specifically part of pulse assessment. Timing in the cardiac cycle is a broader concept and not a characteristic directly assessed during a pulse examination. Therefore, choice A, 'Force,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the standard parameters evaluated during pulse assessment.

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment?

• A. Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask
• B. Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers
• C. Remove gloves, gown, mask, shoe covers
• D. Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment is crucial to prevent contamination. When exiting a surgical or aseptic situation, the proper sequence is to first remove gloves, followed by the gown, mask, and finally shoe covers. This order ensures that potentially contaminated items are removed first, minimizing the risk of exposure. Choice A, 'Remove gown, gloves, shoe covers, mask,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed before the gown. Choice B, 'Remove mask, gloves, gown, shoe covers,' is incorrect as gloves should be removed first. Choice D, 'Remove shoe covers, mask, gloves, gown,' is incorrect as gloves should be the first item removed to prevent contamination.

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