Nursing Elites

1. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?

• A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
• B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
• C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
• D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.

2. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36°C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

3. Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?

• A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
• B. Embolic stroke
• C. Sexual abuse
• D. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation, and self-neglect. In this scenario, given Madge's age, history of dementia, and the presence of unexplained bruising in sensitive areas, sexual abuse must be considered as a major concern. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a platelet disorder that presents with excessive bruising and bleeding, but it is less likely in this case as the bruising pattern is suggestive of a different cause. Embolic stroke is a neurological condition that typically presents with sudden onset neurological deficits and is not related to the observed bruising. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP) is a common issue in elderly residents but would not manifest as bruising in specific areas like the breasts and genitals.

4. A 2-year-old child has been brought to the clinic for a well-child checkup. What is the best way for the nurse to begin the assessment?

• A. Ask the parent to place the child on the examining table.
• B. Have the parent remove all of the child's clothing before the examination.
• C. Allow the child to keep a security object such as a toy or blanket during the examination.
• D. Initially focus the interactions on the child, essentially ignoring the parent until the child's trust has been obtained.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best place to examine the toddler is on the parent's lap. Toddlers understand symbols; therefore, a security object is helpful. Initially, the focus is more on the parent, which allows the child to adjust gradually and to become familiar with you. A 2-year-old child does not like to take off his or her clothes. Therefore, ask the parent to undress one body part at a time.

5. During the general survey, what action is a component of the assessment?

• A. Observing the patient's body stature and nutritional status
• B. Interpreting the subjective information reported by the patient
• C. Measuring the patient's temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure
• D. Observing specific body systems during the physical assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the general survey, the nurse assesses the patient's overall appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior, which includes observing body stature and nutritional status. Interpreting subjective information reported by the patient is part of the subjective data collection process and not the general survey. Measuring vital signs like temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure is part of a focused physical examination, not the general survey. Additionally, observing specific body systems while performing a physical assessment is more specific and focused than the general survey.

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