NCLEX NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?
- A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
- B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
- C. When dehydration is suspected.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: When dehydration is suspected.
Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.
2. After assessing Mr. B, what is the initial action of the nurse?
- A. Immediately place the client in a negative-pressure room
- B. Set the client up to receive a bronchoscopy
- C. Contact the physician for antifungal medications
- D. Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position
Correct answer: Administer oxygen and assist the client to sit in the semi-Fowler's position
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take after assessing Mr. B is to administer oxygen and assist him to sit in the semi-Fowler's position. Administering oxygen helps improve tissue oxygenation, while sitting up in a semi-Fowler's position aids in better breathing and secretion clearance. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room is not the immediate priority unless isolation is needed. Performing a bronchoscopy or contacting the physician for antifungal medications is not the initial step in managing a client with suspected pneumonia.
3. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?
- A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
- B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
- C. Temperature 100.8°F (38.2°C)
- D. No bowel movement for 4 days
Correct answer: Temperature 100.8°F (38.2°C)
Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.
4. During a clinic visit, the mother of a 7-year-old reports to the nurse that her child is often awake until midnight playing and is then very difficult to awaken in the morning for school. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain in response to the mother's report?
- A. The occurrence of any episodes of sleep apnea
- B. The child's blood pressure, pulse, and respirations
- C. Length of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep that the child is experiencing
- D. Description of the family's home environment
Correct answer: Description of the family's home environment
Rationale: When a school-age child has difficulty going to sleep and waking up in the morning, it is important to assess the family's home environment. This includes factors such as bedtime rituals, noise levels, lighting, use of electronic devices, and overall sleep hygiene practices. Understanding the home environment can help identify issues that may be contributing to the child's sleep problems and guide the development of a plan to promote better sleep habits. Options A, B, and C are less relevant in this scenario. Sleep apnea typically causes daytime fatigue rather than resistance to bedtime. Assessing vital signs like blood pressure, pulse, and respirations is unlikely to provide insights into the child's sleep patterns. Monitoring REM sleep duration is not practical in a clinical setting and may not directly address the reported sleep issues in this case.
5. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?
- A. Once a shift
- B. Once an hour
- C. Every 2 hours
- D. Every 4 hours
Correct answer: Every 2 hours
Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access @ $69.99
NCLEX Basic
- 5,000 Questions and answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX Coverage
- 90 days access @ $69.99