NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. When is a physician likely to assess turgor?
- A. When iron deficiency is suspected.
- B. When heart and lung issues are suspected.
- C. When dehydration is suspected.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is suspected. To evaluate skin turgor, a physician pinches the skin and observes how quickly it returns to its normal position. If the skin stays folded for an extended period, it indicates dehydration. Assessing turgor helps determine a patient's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because skin turgor is not used to assess iron deficiency. Choice B is incorrect as turgor is not related to heart and lung issues, but rather hydration status. Choice D is incorrect as turgor assessment is relevant when dehydration is suspected.
2. A client is being admitted to the hospital because of a seizure that occurred at his home. The client has no previous history of seizures. In planning the client's nursing care, which of the following measures is most essential at the time of admission?
- A. Place a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed.
- B. Pad the bed with blankets.
- C. Inform the client about the importance of wearing a medical identification tag.
- D. Teach the client about seizures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most essential measure when admitting a client who had a seizure is to pad the bed with blankets (Option B). This is crucial to prevent injury in case of another seizure. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the head of the bed (Option A) is incorrect as current nursing guidelines advise against putting anything in the client's mouth during a seizure. Informing the client about wearing a medical identification tag (Option C) and teaching the client about seizures (Option D) are important but are more relevant once the cause of the seizure is known. It's crucial to remember that not all seizures are classified as epilepsy.
3. A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?
- A. Do not perform the procedure. Notify the physician of the reason why.
- B. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope.
- C. Allow the patient to reschedule for a time when he isn't as anxious.
- D. Have the physician draw the blood.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a patient is sweating and anxious, it is important to assess for signs of potential syncope (fainting) while proceeding with the blood draw. If the patient does not exhibit signs of fainting, the phlebotomy procedure can be performed safely. Postponing the procedure may not address the patient's anxiety and inconvenience them. Having the physician draw the blood is not necessary if the phlebotomist can handle the situation effectively.
4. What is the best outcome for a patient with the nursing diagnosis: Impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance, as evidenced by stating, "Although I'd like to, I don't join in because I don't speak the language very well?"? The patient will:
- A. demonstrate improved social skills
- B. express a desire to interact with others
- C. become more independent in decision-making
- D. select and participate in one group activity per day
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct outcome for the patient with impaired social interaction related to sociocultural dissonance is to select and participate in one group activity per day. This outcome focuses on increasing social involvement, which aligns with addressing the nursing diagnosis. The patient has already expressed a desire to interact with others, so the goal is to facilitate actual participation in social activities. Becoming more independent in decision-making and demonstrating improved social skills are not directly related to the specific nursing diagnosis provided. Additionally, the outcomes must be measurable, making choices A and C less appropriate as they lack specificity and measurability.
5. When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied?
- A. 100 per minute
- B. 60 per minute
- C. As quickly as possible
- D. 200 per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During CPR, chest compressions should be applied at a rate of 100 compressions per minute in order to effectively circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs. Option A, '100 per minute,' is the correct answer as it aligns with the recommended compression rate in CPR guidelines. Option B, '60 per minute,' is incorrect as it is too slow and may not provide adequate circulation. Option C, 'As quickly as possible,' is vague and does not specify the recommended compression rate. Option D, '200 per minute,' is incorrect as it exceeds the recommended rate and may not be as effective in maintaining perfusion.
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