Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client?

• A. Loosen pressure dressings on wounds
• B. Use assistance to lift a client in bed
• C. Check temperature of water used in a sponge bath
• D. Position the client in a prone position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client, nurses can implement various interventions. Checking the temperature of the water used in a sponge bath is crucial to prevent burns from water that is too hot or discomfort from water that is too cold. This intervention addresses a common source of discomfort for clients during personal care. Loosening pressure dressings on wounds, although important for wound care, does not directly address environmental stimuli. Using assistance to lift a client in bed is about proper positioning and preventing injury rather than reducing environmental stimuli. Positioning the client prone is not a suitable intervention for reducing discomfort caused by environmental stimuli.

2. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this?

• A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously
• B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously
• C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis
• D. Crohn's disease in remission

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A history of hepatitis C five years previously would prevent a donor from donating blood for transfusion. Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily fluids, such as blood, causing inflammation of the liver. Patients with hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection in the recipient. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously, asymptomatic diverticulosis, and Crohn's disease in remission are not contraindications for blood donation as they do not pose a risk of transmitting infections to the recipient.

3. The nurse is preparing to assess a patient’s abdomen by palpation. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Avoid palpating reportedly “tender” areas as this may cause pain.
• B. Palpate tender areas quickly to minimize patient discomfort.
• C. Initiate the assessment with deep palpation while encouraging the patient to relax and take deep breaths.
• D. Begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct approach is to begin the assessment with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to acclimate the patient to touch. This allows the nurse to first assess surface features before proceeding to deeper palpation. Starting with light palpation also helps the patient become more comfortable with being touched, creating a smoother examination experience. Palpating tender areas quickly, as suggested in choice B, can increase patient discomfort. Deep palpation, as in choice C, is typically performed after light palpation to avoid discomfort and ensure proper assessment. Avoiding palpation of tender areas first, as in choice A, helps prevent causing unnecessary pain and should be done towards the end of the assessment.

4. While performing CPR, a healthcare provider encounters a client with a large amount of thick chest hair when preparing to use an automated external defibrillator (AED). What is the next appropriate action for the healthcare provider?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest and provide a shock
• B. Wipe the client's chest down with a towel before applying the pads
• C. Shave the client's chest to remove the hair
• D. Do not use the AED

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When using an AED, it is crucial for the pads to have good contact with the skin to effectively deliver an electrical shock. While AED pads can adhere to a client's chest even with some hair, thick chest hair can hinder proper current conduction. In such cases, it is recommended to shave the area of the chest where the pads will be applied. Most AED kits include a razor for this purpose. The healthcare provider should act promptly to minimize delays in defibrillation. Option A is incorrect because it may lead to ineffective treatment due to poor pad adherence. Option B is not the best course of action as wiping the chest may not resolve the issue of poor pad contact. Option D is incorrect as not using the AED could jeopardize the client's chance of survival in a cardiac emergency.

5. A 4-month-old child is at the clinic for a well-baby checkup and immunizations. Which of these actions is most appropriate when the nurse is assessing an infant's vital signs?

• A. The infant's radial pulse should be palpated, and the nurse should notice any fluctuations resulting from activity or exercise.
• B. The nurse should auscultate an apical rate for 1 minute and then assess for any normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia.
• C. The infant's blood pressure should be assessed by using a stethoscope with a large diaphragm piece to hear the soft muffled Korotkoff sounds.
• D. The infant's chest should be observed and the respiratory rate counted for 1 minute; the respiratory pattern may vary significantly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse auscultates an apical rate, not a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers. The pulse should be counted by listening to the heart for 1 full minute to account for normal irregularities, such as sinus dysrhythmia. Children younger than 3 years of age have such small arm vessels; consequently, hearing Korotkoff sounds with a stethoscope is difficult. The nurse should use either an electronic blood pressure device that uses oscillometry or a Doppler ultrasound device to amplify the sounds. An infant's respiratory rate should be assessed by observing the infant's abdomen, not chest, because an infant's respirations are normally more diaphragmatic than thoracic. The nurse should auscultate an apical heart rate, not palpate a radial pulse, with infants and toddlers.

Similar Questions