Nursing Elites

1. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client?

• A. Loosen pressure dressings on wounds
• B. Use assistance to lift a client in bed
• C. Check temperature of water used in a sponge bath
• D. Position the client in a prone position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To reduce environmental stimuli that may cause discomfort for a client, nurses can implement various interventions. Checking the temperature of the water used in a sponge bath is crucial to prevent burns from water that is too hot or discomfort from water that is too cold. This intervention addresses a common source of discomfort for clients during personal care. Loosening pressure dressings on wounds, although important for wound care, does not directly address environmental stimuli. Using assistance to lift a client in bed is about proper positioning and preventing injury rather than reducing environmental stimuli. Positioning the client prone is not a suitable intervention for reducing discomfort caused by environmental stimuli.

2. The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these clients would the nurse prioritize first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission?

• A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago.
• B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago.
• C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning.
• D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best candidate for discharge during a need for emergency room availability is a stable patient with a chronic condition who is familiar with their care. In this scenario, the middle-aged client in option A, who has been ventilator dependent for over seven years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago, is most suitable for discharge. This client is likely stable and can continue medication therapy at home, making them the most appropriate choice for discharge at this time. Choice B should not be the priority for discharge as the young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago may need further monitoring and management of their condition. Choice C, the elderly client with multiple comorbidities and admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome on the same day, is not a suitable candidate for immediate discharge as they may require ongoing medical attention and observation. Choice D, the adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the lower leg 48 hours ago, should not be discharged first as acute cellulitis may require continued treatment and monitoring, especially in the context of a positive HIV status.

3. Which action is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

• A. Listen to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi.
• B. Label specimens obtained during percutaneous lung biopsy.
• C. Instruct a patient about how to use home spirometry testing.
• D. Measure induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Labeling specimens obtained during a percutaneous lung biopsy is a task that can be appropriately delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it does not require nursing judgment. UAP can perform this task safely under the supervision of a nurse. Listening to a patient's lung sounds for wheezes or rhonchi, instructing a patient about how to use home spirometry testing, and measuring induration at the site of a patient's intradermal skin test all require nursing judgment and interpretation of findings. These tasks should be performed by licensed nursing personnel to ensure accurate assessment and appropriate intervention.

4. A physician has ordered that a client must be placed in a high Fowler's position. How does the nurse position this client?

• A. The client is placed face-down
• B. The client lies on his back with his head lower than his feet
• C. The client lies on his back with the knees drawn up toward the chest
• D. The client is sitting with the backrest at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A high Fowler's position is a modification of the semi-Fowler's position, in which the client is seated with arms resting at the sides or in the lap. The high Fowler's position requires that the client's head and upper chest are elevated, and the backrest is at a 90-degree angle. This position supports breathing and appropriate chest wall movement, making it easier for the client to breathe. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a high Fowler's position involves the client being in a sitting position with the backrest at a 90-degree angle, not being face-down, lying with the head lower than the feet, or lying on the back with knees drawn up towards the chest.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to percuss the abdomen of a patient. What characteristic of the underlying tissue does percussion assess?

• A. Turgor
• B. Texture
• C. Density
• D. Consistency

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Percussion is a technique used to assess the density of underlying organs by producing sounds that help determine their location and size. Turgor, texture, and consistency are primarily assessed through palpation, not percussion. Turgor refers to skin elasticity, texture pertains to the feel of the tissue surface, and consistency relates to the firmness or resistance of the tissue.

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