NCLEX NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature—36°C; pulse—48 beats per minute; respirations—14 breaths per minute; blood pressure—104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?
- A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
- B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
- C. The patient’s pulse rate is not normal—no action is required.
- D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.
Correct answer: These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.
2. Mr. N is a client who entered the hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse enters his room to check his vital signs and finds him breathing at a rate of 32 times per minute; his respirations are deep and regular. Which type of respiratory pattern is Mr. N most likely exhibiting?
- A. Kussmaul respirations
- B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
- C. Biot's respirations
- D. Cluster breathing
Correct answer: Kussmaul respirations
Rationale: Mr. N is most likely exhibiting Kussmaul respirations. Kussmaul respirations are a form of hyperventilation associated with conditions like metabolic acidosis. They are characterized by rapid, regular, and deep breathing. This type of respiratory pattern helps the body compensate for metabolic acidosis by attempting to blow off excess carbon dioxide. This pattern is different from Cheyne-Stokes respirations (choice B), which are characterized by alternating periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by apnea. Biot's respirations (choice C) are characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by irregular periods of apnea, and Cluster breathing (choice D) involves clusters of breaths followed by periods of apnea, often seen in patients with brain injury or neurological conditions.
3. Which of the following is an example of a living will?
- A. A client's son has been appointed to make his healthcare decisions if he becomes incapacitated
- B. A client has designated which of his children will receive his home and property before he dies
- C. A client has instructions that he does not want to be resuscitated through chest compressions if his heart stops beating
- D. A client designates what type of burial or cremation services he would want after his death
Correct answer: A client has instructions that he does not want to be resuscitated through chest compressions if his heart stops beating
Rationale: A living will is a type of advanced directive that a client develops to stipulate his preferences for healthcare in the event that he is unable to do so. This includes specific instructions about medical treatments in certain situations. Choice C is the correct answer as it reflects a scenario where the client has clearly outlined their preference regarding resuscitation through chest compressions. Choices A, B, and D do not pertain to a living will. Choice A involves a healthcare proxy or agent, choice B involves a will or estate planning, and choice D involves funeral or burial arrangements, which are not part of a living will.
4. The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?
- A. Low serum albumin level
- B. Low serum transferrin level
- C. High hemoglobin level
- D. High cholesterol level
Correct answer: Low serum albumin level
Rationale: Long-term protein deficiency significantly lowers serum albumin levels. Albumin, derived from protein breakdown, is produced by the liver when adequate amino acids are available. Due to its long half-life, acute protein loss minimally affects serum albumin levels. In contrast, serum transferrin, with a shorter half-life of 8 to 10 days, decreases with acute protein deficiency and is not a reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Elevated hemoglobin levels may occur in conditions like dehydration or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, making it an unreliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. High cholesterol levels are not directly linked to protein malnutrition and do not serve as a reliable indicator. Therefore, the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition among the options provided is a low serum albumin level.
5. The abbreviation pc is defined as ________________.
- A. before the meal
- B. with the meal
- C. after the meal
- D. post corpi
Correct answer: after the meal
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'after the meal.' In medical terminology, 'pc' is an abbreviation for 'post cibum,' which means 'after eating' or 'after the meal.' This term is used to indicate when a medication should be taken concerning meals. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. 'Before the meal' (A) is typically abbreviated as 'ac,' 'with the meal' (B) is abbreviated as 'pc,' and 'post corpi' (D) is not a valid medical abbreviation or term.
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