NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature—36°C; pulse—48 beats per minute; respirations—14 breaths per minute; blood pressure—104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?
- A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
- B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
- C. The patient’s pulse rate is not normal—no action is required.
- D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.
Correct answer: These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.
2. A client is post-op day #1 after a hemilaminectomy. The nurse removes the dressing as ordered and notes that the incision appears slightly red, with a small amount of serous drainage coming from the site. The edges of the incision are approximated. What is the next action of the nurse?
- A. Assist the client to shower as ordered and monitor the site for further changes
- B. Instruct the client to lie prone to allow the site to dry
- C. Place antibiotic ointment and a sterile dressing over the site
- D. Notify the physician for an antibiotic order
Correct answer: Assist the client to shower as ordered and monitor the site for further changes
Rationale: An incision that appears slightly red with a small amount of serous drainage on the first day following surgery is going through a normal healing process. It is important to keep the incision clean. In this case, the nurse should assist the client to shower as ordered to maintain hygiene and monitor for changes in the incision site. Instructing the client to lie prone may not be necessary and could cause discomfort. Applying antibiotic ointment without a specific order is not recommended as it can interfere with the healing process. Notifying the physician for an antibiotic order is premature at this stage since the incision is showing normal signs of healing.
3. The nurse is planning care for a patient with a wrist restraint. How often should a restraint be removed, the area massaged, and the joints moved through their full range?
- A. Once a shift
- B. Once an hour
- C. Every 2 hours
- D. Every 4 hours
Correct answer: Every 2 hours
Rationale: Restraints should be removed every 2 hours to prevent complications. Moving the joints through their full range of motion helps prevent muscle shortening and contractures. Massaging the area promotes circulation and reduces the risk of pressure injuries. Removing restraints less frequently could lead to complications like decreased circulation and skin breakdown. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of removing restraints every 2 hours to ensure patient safety and well-being.
4. Which of the following vital signs can be expected in a child that is afebrile?
- A. Rectal Temp of 100.9 degrees F.
- B. Oral Temp of 38 degrees C.
- C. Axillary Temp of 98.6 degrees F.
- D. All of the above are incorrect.
Correct answer: Axillary Temp of 98.6 degrees F.
Rationale: The correct answer is the axillary temperature of 98.6 degrees F. Afebrile means without a fever, and an axillary temperature, which is taken in the armpit, is considered normal at 98.6 degrees F. Choice A is incorrect as a rectal temperature of 100.9 degrees F indicates a fever. Choice B is incorrect as an oral temperature of 38 degrees C is also indicative of a fever. Choice D is incorrect as not all options are wrong; only choices A and B are incorrect for an afebrile child.
5. A nurse is preparing to irrigate a client's indwelling catheter through a closed, intermittent system. Which of the following steps must the nurse take as part of this process?
- A. Use sterile solution at room temperature
- B. Position the client in a comfortable position
- C. Clamp the catheter at the level above the injection port
- D. Inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter
Correct answer: Inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter
Rationale: When performing closed intermittent system catheter irrigation, the nurse should use sterile solution at room temperature with sterile technique. It is important to position the client comfortably for easy access to the catheter site and to assess the abdomen during the procedure. Clamping the catheter should be done below the level of the injection port, not above. The correct step is to inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter, allowing the fluid to travel up the catheter to irrigate the tubing and the bladder.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access