Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of a 20-year-old marathon runner and documents the following vital signs: temperature"?36°C; pulse"?48 beats per minute; respirations"?14 breaths per minute; blood pressure"?104/68 mm Hg. Which statement is true concerning these results?

• A. The patient is experiencing bradycardia.
• B. These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.
• C. The patient's pulse rate is not normal"?no action is required.
• D. The patient's next clinic visit should occur as scheduled.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These are normal vital signs for a healthy, athletic adult.' A pulse rate of 48 beats per minute is considered bradycardia in adults, but it is not a concern in well-trained athletes like marathon runners. Bradycardia is a normal physiological response to aerobic conditioning. Tachycardia, on the other hand, is defined as a pulse rate above 100 beats per minute, which is not the case here. The low pulse rate in this scenario is a reflection of the athlete's cardiovascular fitness. Therefore, there is no need to notify the physician or schedule a follow-up visit based on these findings.

2. A nurse is preparing to irrigate a client's indwelling catheter through a closed, intermittent system. Which of the following steps must the nurse take as part of this process?

• A. Use sterile solution at room temperature
• B. Position the client in a comfortable position
• C. Clamp the catheter at the level above the injection port
• D. Inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing closed intermittent system catheter irrigation, the nurse should use sterile solution at room temperature with sterile technique. It is important to position the client comfortably for easy access to the catheter site and to assess the abdomen during the procedure. Clamping the catheter should be done below the level of the injection port, not above. The correct step is to inject sterile solution through the injection port into the catheter, allowing the fluid to travel up the catheter to irrigate the tubing and the bladder.

3. Patients who cannot move in their bed on their own should be turned at least ________________.

• A. once a day
• B. twice a day
• C. every 2 hours
• D. every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who are unable to move in bed are at high risk of developing pressure ulcers and skin breakdown due to prolonged pressure on specific body areas. Turning these patients at least every 2 hours is crucial to relieve pressure, improve circulation, and prevent skin damage. More frequent turning may be necessary for patients with specific needs, such as those who are incontinent of urine and require additional care. Turning patients less frequently, such as once a day, twice a day, or every 4 hours, increases the risk of developing pressure ulcers and other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is to turn patients who cannot move in their bed on their own every 2 hours.

4. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure?

• A. Angina at rest
• B. Thrombus formation
• C. Dizziness
• D. Falling blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a critical complication of cardiac catheterization that the nurse should monitor for in the initial 24 hours after the procedure. A thrombus can form in the blood vessels, obstructing blood flow and potentially leading to serious consequences such as embolism or organ ischemia. While angina at rest, dizziness, and falling blood pressure are potential complications following cardiac catheterization, they are not typically associated with the immediate post-procedural period. Monitoring for thrombus formation is essential to ensure early detection and intervention, which can prevent serious complications.

5. When placing a patient in the AP position for an X-ray, what position would the patient be in?

• A. Facing the X-ray film.
• B. Right side against the X-ray film.
• C. Left side against the X-ray film.
• D. Facing away from the X-ray film

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The AP position stands for Anteroposterior Projection. When a patient is in the AP position for an X-ray, they are facing away from the X-ray film. This positioning allows for a clear view of the structures being imaged from front to back. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the patient is not facing or positioned against the X-ray film in the AP position, but rather facing away from it to capture the necessary diagnostic information.

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