Nursing Elites

1. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)

• A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
• B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
• C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
• D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.

2. Which playroom activities should the nurse organize for a small group of 7-year-old hospitalized children?

• A. Sports and games with rules.
• B. Finger paints and water play.
• C. "Dress-up"? clothes and props.
• D. Chess and television programs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For 7-year-old children, play serves an important role in developing cooperation, logical reasoning, and social skills. Organizing sports and games with rules is beneficial as it helps children understand the importance of rules, promotes teamwork, and fosters social interactions. Finger paints and water play, while fun, may not target the specific developmental needs of this age group. Similarly, 'Dress-up' clothes and props can encourage imaginative play but may not necessarily promote cooperation and logical reasoning. Chess and television programs are more suited for older children and may not engage 7-year-olds as effectively in developing the desired skills.

3. A healthcare professional is considering which patient to admit to the same room as a patient who had a liver transplant 3 weeks ago and is now hospitalized with acute rejection. Which patient would be the best choice?

• A. Patient who is receiving chemotherapy for liver cancer
• B. Patient who is receiving chemotherapy for lung cancer
• C. Patient who has a wound infection after cholecystectomy
• D. Patient who requires pain management for chronic pancreatitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient with chronic pancreatitis is the best choice to admit to the same room as a patient who had a liver transplant and is experiencing acute rejection. This is because the patient with chronic pancreatitis does not pose an infection risk to the immunosuppressed patient who had a liver transplant. On the other hand, patients receiving chemotherapy for cancer or those with wound infections are at risk for infections, which could endanger the immunosuppressed patient with acute rejection.

4. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?

• A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
• B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
• C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
• D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.

5. A client in a long-term care facility has developed reddened skin over the sacrum, which has cracked and started to blister. The nurse confirms that the client has not been assisted with turning while in bed. Which stage of pressure ulcer is this client exhibiting?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage IV

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is exhibiting a stage II pressure ulcer. A stage II pressure ulcer develops as a partial thickness wound that affects both the epidermis and the dermal layers of skin. This stage can present with red skin, blisters, or cracking, appearing shallow and moist. However, the ulcer does not extend to the underlying tissues at this stage. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect as Stage I ulcers involve non-blanchable redness of intact skin. Choices C (Stage III) and D (Stage IV) are incorrect as they involve more severe tissue damage, extending into deeper layers of the skin and underlying tissues, which is not the case in this scenario.

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