NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)
- A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
- B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
- C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
- D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.
2. A healthcare professional realizes after a patient has left the office that they forgot to document the patient's complaint of a sore throat. Which of the following choices would BEST correct the error?
- A. Pull out that page of the chart and rewrite it with the correct information.
- B. Put one line through the original Chief Complaint, write 'ERROR,' your initials, and today's date. Make the correction by rewriting the Chief Complaint with the correct information.
- C. Go to the next available line of the SOAP notes. Write the current date, then write 'Late Entry.' Place the date and time when the patient stated they had a sore throat. Sign and date the entry.
- D. All of the above are incorrect.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When adding information to a patient's chart after the encounter, using the term 'Late Entry' is essential. This clearly indicates that the information was added after the fact and helps to maintain the accuracy and integrity of the medical record. Option A is incorrect because removing a page from the chart and rewriting it can lead to inaccuracies and is not a recommended practice for correcting errors. Option B suggests marking the original Chief Complaint as an error, which may not be clear to future readers of the chart and could lead to confusion. Option D is incorrect as it dismisses the correct approach outlined in Option C, which is the best way to handle the situation of missed documentation during a patient encounter.
3. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?
- A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
- B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
- C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
- D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.
4. Madge is a 91-year-old nursing home resident with a history of dementia and atrial fibrillation who has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. As you are performing her bed bath, you note bruising around her breasts and genital area. What potential issue should be of major concern in Madge's situation?
- A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
- B. Embolic stroke
- C. Sexual abuse
- D. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bruising around the breasts and genitals should trigger concern for sexual abuse. Elder abuse is a growing problem in America, and nurses are uniquely positioned to recognize and intervene on behalf of vulnerable populations, such as the elderly. According to the National Center on Elder Abuse (NCEA), major types of elder abuse include physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, abandonment, financial or material exploitation, and self-neglect. In this scenario, given Madge's age, history of dementia, and the presence of unexplained bruising in sensitive areas, sexual abuse must be considered as a major concern. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a platelet disorder that presents with excessive bruising and bleeding, but it is less likely in this case as the bruising pattern is suggestive of a different cause. Embolic stroke is a neurological condition that typically presents with sudden onset neurological deficits and is not related to the observed bruising. Nursing home-acquired pneumonia (NHAP) is a common issue in elderly residents but would not manifest as bruising in specific areas like the breasts and genitals.
5. Which of the following vital signs can be expected in a child that is afebrile?
- A. Rectal Temp of 100.9 degrees F.
- B. Oral Temp of 38 degrees C.
- C. Axillary Temp of 98.6 degrees F.
- D. All of the above are incorrect.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the axillary temperature of 98.6 degrees F. Afebrile means without a fever, and an axillary temperature, which is taken in the armpit, is considered normal at 98.6 degrees F. Choice A is incorrect as a rectal temperature of 100.9 degrees F indicates a fever. Choice B is incorrect as an oral temperature of 38 degrees C is also indicative of a fever. Choice D is incorrect as not all options are wrong; only choices A and B are incorrect for an afebrile child.
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