NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Actual Exam Test Bank
1. When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.)
- A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG
- B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG
- C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph
- D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient laughs due to anxiety during an EKG, it is likely to cause tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate. This increased heart rate can lead to poor EKG graph quality as the electrical signals from large moving muscles can interfere with data collection from the chest leads. Therefore, in this scenario, the EKG is expected to show tachycardia with poor graph quality. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a patient laughing out of anxiety is more likely to result in an increased pulse rate (tachycardia) rather than a decreased pulse rate (bradycardia) or a normal EKG.
2. A registered nurse who usually works in a spinal rehabilitation unit is floated to the emergency department. Which of these clients should the charge nurse assign to this RN?
- A. A middle-aged client who says, "I took too many diet pills"? and "my heart feels like it is racing out of my chest."?
- B. A young adult who says, "I hear songs from heaven. I need money for beer. I quit drinking two (2) days ago for my family. Why are my arms and legs jerking?"?
- C. An adolescent who has been on pain medications for terminal cancer with an initial assessment finding of pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11.
- D. An elderly client who reports having taken a "large crack hit"? 10 minutes prior to walking into the emergency room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assigning a floated nurse from another unit to a client in the emergency department, the goal is to choose a patient with minimal anticipated immediate complications. In this scenario, the adolescent with terminal cancer who has been on pain medications and presents with pinpoint pupils and a relaxed respiratory rate of 11 is the most stable option. These assessment findings indicate opioid toxicity, which, while serious, has the least risk of immediate complications compared to the other clients. Choice A involves a middle-aged client experiencing symptoms of possible cardiac issues due to diet pill overdose, which requires urgent intervention. Choice B presents a young adult with concerning symptoms of potential psychosis or substance withdrawal, requiring immediate attention. Choice D involves an elderly client who recently used crack, posing a high-risk situation that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. Therefore, the correct choice is the adolescent with opioid toxicity, as this client has the least immediate risk of complications among the options provided.
3. Your patient has finished a 12-ounce can of iced tea and 8 ounces of fresh orange juice. What will you record on the Intake and Output form for this patient's intake?
- A. 20 cc
- B. 20 cm
- C. 600 cc
- D. 600 cm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: You will record 600 cc of fluid intake. There are 600 cc in 20 ounces (12 ounces of iced tea + 8 ounces of orange juice) of fluid intake. Choice A and B are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct conversion of fluid intake from ounces to cubic centimeters. Choice D is incorrect as it provides the measurement in cubic centimeters but does not account for the total fluid intake accurately.
4. Who is legally able to make decisions for the patient or resident during a patient care conference when the patient is not mentally able to make decisions on their own?
- A. The patient or their healthcare proxy
- B. Only the patient
- C. Only the healthcare proxy
- D. The doctor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is unable to make decisions due to mental incapacity, the healthcare proxy, designated by the patient in advance, has the legal authority to make decisions on the patient's behalf. In this situation, the patient lacks the capacity to make decisions independently. The healthcare proxy's role is to represent the patient's wishes and best interests. The doctor's role in a patient care conference is to provide medical expertise, offer recommendations, and assist in the decision-making process, but the final decision-making authority lies with the healthcare proxy, not the doctor.
5. A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true?
- A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease
- B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours
- C. The specimen is positive for bacteria
- D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Storing the specimen in an area protected from light helps maintain the integrity of the bilirubin levels for accurate testing. Choice A is incorrect because the presence of bilirubin in urine does not necessarily indicate kidney disease. Choice B is incorrect as the exposure to light, not room temperature, affects bilirubin levels. Choice C is incorrect as the presence of bilirubin does not indicate the presence of bacteria in the specimen.
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