Nursing Elites

1. When preparing a patient on complete bed rest to eat, at what degree angle or more should you put the head of the bed up?

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20
• D. 30

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 30. When a patient is on complete bed rest, it is essential to elevate the head of the bed at a 30-degree angle or more before meals. This position helps prevent choking and aspiration of food during eating by promoting proper swallowing and digestion. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal elevation needed to support safe and effective feeding for a patient on complete bed rest.

2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with a diagnosis of Risk for Activity Intolerance?

• A. Perform nursing activities throughout the entire shift
• B. Assess for signs of increased muscle tone
• C. Minimize environmental noise
• D. Teach clients to perform the Valsalva maneuver

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client diagnosed with Risk for Activity Intolerance is to minimize environmental noise. Environmental noise can increase the energy demand on the client as they try to manage their responses to stimuli. By reducing excess noise, the nurse helps promote rest and conserves the client's energy, which is crucial in managing activity intolerance. Choice A is incorrect because increasing nursing activities may exacerbate the client's intolerance to activity. Choice B is incorrect as assessing for signs of increased muscle tone does not directly address the issue of activity intolerance. Choice D is incorrect as teaching the Valsalva maneuver is not relevant to managing activity intolerance in this scenario.

3. The nurse is conducting a health fair for older adults. Which statement is true regarding vital sign measurements in aging adults?

• A. The pulse is easier to palpate due to the rigidity of the blood vessels.
• B. An increased respiratory rate and a shallower inspiratory phase are expected findings.
• C. A widened pulse pressure occurs from changes in the systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
• D. Changes in the body's temperature regulatory mechanism decrease the older adult's likelihood of developing a fever.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Aging causes a decrease in vital capacity and decreased inspiratory reserve volume. As a result, the examiner may observe a shallower inspiratory phase and an increased respiratory rate in older adults. Contrary to common belief, the increased rigidity of arterial walls actually makes the pulse easier to palpate in aging adults. Pulse pressure is widened, not decreased, due to changes in systolic and diastolic blood pressures. Furthermore, changes in the body's temperature regulatory mechanism make older individuals less likely to develop a fever but more susceptible to hypothermia.

4. Intermittent fevers are:

• A. fevers which come and go.
• B. fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature.
• C. fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees and never return to normal.
• D. None of the above.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Intermittent fevers are characterized by periods of fever followed by periods of normal body temperature. They alternate between being febrile and afebrile. Continuous fevers show minimal fluctuations over a 24-hour period, while remittent fevers fluctuate significantly but do return to normal body temperature. Choice A is correct as it accurately describes intermittent fevers. Choices B and C are incorrect as they do not fully capture the defining characteristic of intermittent fevers, which involve cyclical episodes of fever and normal temperature. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific definition for intermittent fevers.

5. The nurse is taking an initial blood pressure reading on a 72-year-old patient with documented hypertension. How should the nurse proceed?

• A. Cuff should be placed on the patient's arm and inflated 30 mm Hg above the point at which the palpated pulse disappears.
• B. Cuff should be inflated to 200 mm Hg in an attempt to obtain the most accurate systolic reading.
• C. Cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the patient's pulse rate.
• D. After confirming the patient's previous blood pressure readings, the cuff should be inflated 30 mm Hg above the highest systolic reading recorded.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure, it's important to account for the possibility of an auscultatory gap, which occurs in about 5% of individuals, particularly those with hypertension due to a noncompliant arterial system. To detect an auscultatory gap, the cuff should be inflated 20 to 30 mm Hg beyond the point at which the palpated pulse disappears. This ensures an accurate measurement of blood pressure by overcoming the potential gap in sounds. Choice A is correct as it follows this guideline. Choices B and C are incorrect because inflating the cuff to 200 mm Hg or above the patient's pulse rate does not address the specific issue of an auscultatory gap. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's previous readings rather than the current measurement technique needed to detect an auscultatory gap.

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