Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been diagnosed with acute gastritis in a clinic. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?

• A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn)
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• D. Furosemide (Lasix)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Gastritis involves inflammation of the stomach lining, and medications like Naproxen can exacerbate this condition. Calcium carbonate is an antacid that can help neutralize stomach acid and may actually provide relief for gastritis symptoms. Clarithromycin is an antibiotic used to treat H. pylori infection, a common cause of gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic used to treat conditions like edema and hypertension, not directly contraindicated in gastritis.

2. Mr. C is brought to the hospital with severe burns over 45% of his body. His heart rate is 124 bpm and thready, BP 84/46, respirations 24/minute and shallow. He is apprehensive and restless. Which of the following types of shock is Mr. C at highest risk for?

• A. Septic shock
• B. Hypovolemic shock
• C. Neurogenic shock
• D. Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mr. C, who has severe burns over 45% of his body, is at highest risk for hypovolemic shock. Burns lead to a loss of plasma volume, reducing the circulating fluid volume and impairing perfusion to vital organs and extremities. In this scenario, the signs of shock, such as increased heart rate, low blood pressure, shallow respirations, and restlessness, indicate a state of hypovolemic shock due to significant fluid loss. Septic shock (choice A) is primarily caused by severe infections, neurogenic shock (choice C) results from spinal cord injuries, and cardiogenic shock (choice D) stems from heart failure. However, in this case, the presentation aligns most closely with hypovolemic shock due to the extensive burn injury and its effects on fluid volume and perfusion.

3. One hour after a thoracotomy, a patient complains of incisional pain at a level 7 (based on a 0 to 10 scale) and has decreased left-sided breath sounds. The pleural drainage system has 100 mL of bloody drainage and a large air leak. Which action is best for the nurse to take next?

• A. Milk the chest tube gently to remove any clots.
• B. Clamp the chest tube momentarily to check for the origin of the air leak.
• C. Assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer.
• D. Set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine.

Correct answer: S

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action is to set up the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) and administer the loading dose of morphine. The patient's pain level is high, which can hinder deep breathing and coughing. Addressing pain control is a priority to facilitate optimal respiratory function. Milking the chest tube to remove clots is unnecessary as the drainage amount is not alarming in the early postoperative period. Clamping the chest tube to locate the air leak is not recommended as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Assisting the patient to deep breathe, cough, and use the incentive spirometer is important but should follow adequate pain management to ensure the patient can effectively participate in these activities.

4. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening.
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases.
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer.
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's disclosure of having multiple sex partners and uncertainty about the baby's father indicates a potential high risk for HIV. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. Early detection of HIV is crucial for initiating timely treatment and improving outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this situation as HIV screening takes precedence over testing for other sexually transmitted diseases, discussing cervical cancer risk, or referring to a family planning clinic.

5. A mother brings her child to the well-child clinic and expresses concern to the nurse because the child has been playing with another child diagnosed with hepatitis. The nurse prepares to perform an assessment on the child, knowing that which finding would be of least concern for hepatitis?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Hepatomegaly
• C. Dark-colored, frothy urine
• D. Left upper abdominal quadrant pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessment findings in a child with hepatitis typically include right upper quadrant tenderness and hepatomegaly. The child may also present with pale, clay-colored stools and dark, frothy urine. Jaundice, which can be observed in the sclerae, nail beds, and mucous membranes, is a common sign of hepatitis. Left upper abdominal quadrant pain is not a typical finding associated with hepatitis; therefore, it would be of least concern in this scenario. The other options are more commonly associated with hepatitis and are important signs to monitor for in a child with possible exposure to the virus.

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