Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old man is being admitted to the hospital for elective knee surgery. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen
• B. Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin
• C. Bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant
• D. Aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Liver edge 3 cm below the costal margin.' Normally, the lower border of the liver is not palpable below the ribs, so this finding suggests hepatomegaly, which could indicate an underlying health issue. Tympany on percussion of the abdomen, bowel sounds of 20/minute in each quadrant, and aortic pulsations visible in the epigastric area are all within normal limits for a physical assessment and do not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

2. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B?

• A. Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily
• B. Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months
• C. Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series
• D. Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B are at a higher risk for developing liver cancer. Therefore, it is essential to schedule them for liver cancer screening every 6 to 12 months to detect any potential malignancies at an early stage. Advising patients to limit alcohol intake is crucial as alcohol can exacerbate liver damage; thus, patients with chronic hepatitis B are advised to completely avoid alcohol. Administering the hepatitis C vaccine is irrelevant for a patient diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B since it is a different virus. Monitoring anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels annually is not necessary as the presence of anti-HBs indicates a past hepatitis B infection or vaccination, and it does not require regular monitoring.

3. The client is being prepared for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz catheter). What information does the client need to know about the purpose of this catheter insertion?

• A. Stroke volume
• B. Cardiac output
• C. Venous pressure
• D. Left ventricular functioning

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Left ventricular functioning. The purpose of inserting a pulmonary artery catheter is to obtain information about left ventricular functioning when the catheter balloon is inflated. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a pulmonary artery catheter can provide information on stroke volume, cardiac output, and venous pressure, its primary purpose is to assess left ventricular function.

4. A patient asks a nurse, "My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acid?'

• A. Green vegetables and liver
• B. Yellow vegetables and red meat
• C. Carrots
• D. Milk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Green vegetables and liver are rich sources of folic acid. Green vegetables like spinach, asparagus, and broccoli are high in folic acid content. Liver, especially from chicken or beef, is also a good source of folic acid. Yellow vegetables and red meat (choice B) do not contain as high a concentration of folic acid as green vegetables and liver. Carrots (choice C) are nutritious but do not have the highest concentration of folic acid. Milk (choice D) is not a significant source of folic acid compared to green vegetables and liver.

5. Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?

• A. "A: Pacing and muttering to self. P: Sensory perceptual alteration, related to internal auditory stimulation. I: Given fluphenazine (Prolixin) 2.5 mg at 0900, and went to room to lie down. E: Calmer by 0930. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
• B. "S: States, 'I feel like I'm ready to blow up.' O: Pacing hall, mumbling to self. A: Auditory hallucinations. P: Offer haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg . I: (Haldol) 2 mg at 0900. E: Returned to lounge at 0930 and quietly watched TV."?
• C. "Agitated behavior. D: Patient muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. A: Given haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg and went to room to lie down. E: Patient calmer. Returned to lounge to watch TV."?
• D. "Pacing hall and muttering to self as though answering an unseen person. haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg administered at 0900 with calming effect in 30 minutes. Stated, 'I'm no longer bothered by the voices.'"?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Problem-oriented documentation uses the first letter of key words to organize data: S for subjective data, O for objective data, A for assessment, P for plan, I for intervention, and E for evaluation. The correct answer demonstrates problem-oriented charting by following this structure. Choice A, C, and D do not follow the problem-oriented charting format and instead offer examples of different documentation styles such as PIE charting, focus documentation, and narrative documentation, respectively. Therefore, choice B is the best example of problem-oriented charting among the options provided.

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