NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A 4-year-old hospitalized child begins to have a seizure while playing with hard plastic toys in the hallway. Of the following nursing actions, which one should the nurse do first?
- A. Place the child in the nearest bed
- B. Administer IV medication to slow down the seizure
- C. Place a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth
- D. Remove the child's toys from the immediate area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority nursing actions are to ensure the safety of the child and maintain airway patency. Placing objects in the child's mouth, like a padded tongue blade, is not recommended as it can lead to injury or obstruction of the airway. Moving the child to a bed is also not the immediate priority during a seizure. Administering IV medication to slow down the seizure is not typically done as the initial action. Therefore, the correct first nursing action is to remove any potential hazards, such as the hard plastic toys, from the immediate area to prevent injury during the seizure.
2. When analyzing the results of the urinalysis collected preoperatively from a child with epispadias scheduled for surgical repair, which finding should the nurse most likely expect to note?
- A. Hematuria
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Bacteriuria
- D. Glucosuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Epispadias is a congenital defect characterized by the abnormal placement of the urethral orifice of the penis, often on the dorsum. This anatomical anomaly predisposes individuals to bacterial entry into the urinary tract, leading to bacteriuria. Hematuria, proteinuria, and glucosuria are not typically associated with epispadias. Hematuria refers to the presence of blood in the urine, proteinuria indicates protein in the urine, and glucosuria is the presence of glucose in the urine, none of which are commonly seen in epispadias.
3. While planning care for a 2-year-old hospitalized child, which situation would the nurse expect to most likely affect the behavior?
- A. Strange bed and surroundings
- B. Separation from parents
- C. Presence of other toddlers
- D. Unfamiliar toys and games
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Separation from parents.' Separation anxiety is most evident from 6 months to 30 months of age and is the greatest stress imposed on a toddler by hospitalization. If separation is avoided, young children have a tremendous capacity to withstand other stress. The other choices, such as 'Strange bed and surroundings,' 'Presence of other toddlers,' and 'Unfamiliar toys and games,' may also have an impact on the child, but separation from parents is typically the most significant factor affecting behavior in a hospitalized 2-year-old.
4. While eating in the hospital cafeteria, a nurse notices a toddler at a nearby table choking on a piece of food and appearing slightly blue. What is the appropriate initial action to take?
- A. Begin mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
- B. Give the child water to help with swallowing
- C. Perform 5 abdominal thrusts
- D. Call for the emergency response team
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a toddler is choking on a piece of food and appears blue, it indicates airway obstruction. The appropriate initial action should be to perform 5 abdominal thrusts. This technique can help dislodge the obstructing object and clear the airway. Initiating mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is not recommended as the first step in a choking emergency, especially in children. Giving water may not be effective and can worsen the situation by causing further blockage. Calling the emergency response team should be considered if the abdominal thrusts are unsuccessful in clearing the airway.
5. Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?
- A. The medication will reduce the risk of aspiration.
- B. The medication will inhibit the development of gastric ulcers.
- C. The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
- D. The medication will decrease nausea and improve appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is: 'The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.' Esophageal varices are dilated submucosal veins. The therapeutic action of H2-receptor blockers in patients with esophageal varices is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices caused by reflux of acidic gastric contents. While ranitidine can decrease the risk of peptic ulcers, reduce nausea, and help prevent aspiration pneumonia, the primary purpose of H2-receptor blockade in this patient is to prevent irritation and bleeding from the varices, not the other listed effects.
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