NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. A 4-year-old hospitalized child begins to have a seizure while playing with hard plastic toys in the hallway. Of the following nursing actions, which one should the nurse do first?
- A. Place the child in the nearest bed
- B. Administer IV medication to slow down the seizure
- C. Place a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth
- D. Remove the child's toys from the immediate area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority nursing actions are to ensure the safety of the child and maintain airway patency. Placing objects in the child's mouth, like a padded tongue blade, is not recommended as it can lead to injury or obstruction of the airway. Moving the child to a bed is also not the immediate priority during a seizure. Administering IV medication to slow down the seizure is not typically done as the initial action. Therefore, the correct first nursing action is to remove any potential hazards, such as the hard plastic toys, from the immediate area to prevent injury during the seizure.
2. The nurse analyzes the results of a patient's arterial blood gases (ABGs). Which finding would require immediate action?
- A. The bicarbonate level (HCO3) is 31 mEq/L
- B. The arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) is 92%
- C. The partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2) is 31 mm Hg
- D. The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) is 59 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: While all the values are abnormal, the low PaO2 level of 59 mm Hg indicates that the patient is at a critical point on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. At this level, a small decrease in PaO2 can lead to a significant drop in oxygen saturation and compromise tissue oxygenation. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to improve the patient's oxygenation status. Choice A (HCO3 of 31 mEq/L) may indicate metabolic alkalosis or compensation for respiratory acidosis; however, it does not require immediate action in this scenario. Choice B (SaO2 of 92%) is slightly low but not critically low to require immediate action. Choice C (PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg) is within the normal range and does not indicate immediate danger to the patient.
3. A patient with a possible pulmonary embolism complains of chest pain and difficulty breathing. The nurse finds a heart rate of 142 beats/minute, blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and respirations of 42 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer anticoagulant drug therapy.
- B. Notify the patient's healthcare provider.
- C. Prepare the patient for a spiral computed tomography (CT).
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The patient presents with symptoms indicative of a pulmonary embolism (PE), such as chest pain, difficulty breathing, tachycardia, hypotension, and tachypnea. Elevating the head of the bed to a semi-Fowler's position is the priority to improve ventilation and gas exchange. This intervention should be initiated promptly to optimize oxygenation. Subsequent actions, such as notifying the healthcare provider, preparing for a spiral CT scan, and administering anticoagulant therapy, can follow after the patient's position is adjusted. The spiral CT scan is typically used to confirm the diagnosis of PE, and anticoagulant therapy is initiated upon confirmation of the diagnosis by the healthcare provider. Therefore, the immediate focus is on improving the patient's respiratory status by elevating the head of the bed.
4. What is a priority problem for a child with severe edema caused by nephrotic syndrome?
- A. Risk for constipation
- B. Risk for skin breakdown
- C. Inability to regulate body temperature
- D. Consuming more calories or nutrients than the body requires
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema, a child with severe edema is at high risk for skin breakdown. The priority concern is to prevent skin breakdown by cleaning skin surfaces and ensuring adequate separation with clothing to avoid irritation. The child with nephrotic syndrome is typically anorexic, making consuming more calories or nutrients than necessary not a concern. Risk for constipation and inability to regulate body temperature are not primary issues associated with edema caused by nephrotic syndrome.
5. Which of the following types of dressing changes works as a form of wound debridement?
- A. Dry dressing
- B. Transparent dressing
- C. Composite dressing
- D. Wet to dry dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Wet to dry dressing.' Wet to dry dressing is a method of wound debridement that involves applying sterile soaked gauze to the wound, allowing it to dry and stick to the wound. When the dressing is removed, it pulls away drainage and debris, aiding in wound debridement. Choice A, 'Dry dressing,' does not actively assist in debridement as it does not collect or remove debris from the wound. Choice B, 'Transparent dressing,' is primarily used for maintaining a moist environment and wound observation, not for debridement. Choice C, 'Composite dressing,' combines multiple layers for different wound care purposes but is not specifically designed for debridement like wet to dry dressing.
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