Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a pleural effusion is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the patient for the procedure?

• A. Start a peripheral IV line to administer any necessary sedative drugs.
• B. Position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward.
• C. Obtain a collection device to hold a reasonable amount of pleural fluid for extraction.
• D. Remove the water pitcher and remind the patient not to eat or drink anything for 6 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in preparing a patient for a thoracentesis is to position the patient sitting upright on the edge of the bed and leaning forward. This position helps fluid accumulate at the lung bases, making it easier to locate and remove. Sedation is not usually required for a thoracentesis, so starting an IV line for sedative drugs is unnecessary. Additionally, there are no restrictions on oral intake before the procedure since the patient is not sedated or unconscious. A large collection device to hold 2 to 3 liters of pleural fluid at one time is excessive as usually only 1000 to 1200 mL of pleural fluid is removed to avoid complications like hypotension, hypoxemia, or pulmonary edema. Therefore, the correct choice is to position the patient upright for the procedure.

2. During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?

• A. "I have constant blurred vision."?
• B. "I can't see on my left side."?
• C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."?
• D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma. Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side. Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.

3. The nurse is caring for a 36-year-old patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority?

• A. Offer psychological support for depression.
• B. Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices.
• C. Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed.
• D. Teach about the need to avoid scratching any pruritic areas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed. Pain management is the highest priority in this scenario as effective pain control is essential for the patient's overall well-being. Pain relief will not only improve the patient's comfort but also enhance their ability to eat, follow dietary recommendations, and be open to psychological support. Offering psychological support for depression (Choice A) is important but addressing pain takes precedence. While providing high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices (Choice B) is crucial, it is secondary to managing pain. Teaching about the need to avoid scratching pruritic areas (Choice D) is relevant but not the highest priority in this situation where pain management is critical for the patient's quality of life.

4. The healthcare provider assesses a patient suspected of having an asthma attack. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

• A. Audible crackles and orthopnea
• B. An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles
• C. Audible crackles and use of accessory muscles
• D. Audible wheeze and orthopnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B, 'An audible wheeze and use of accessory muscles,' is the correct answer. In asthma, patients commonly present with wheezing due to airway constriction and the use of accessory muscles to aid in breathing. Audible crackles (rales) are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, congestive heart failure, or pulmonary fibrosis. Orthopnea, which is difficulty breathing while lying flat, is typically seen in conditions like heart failure or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, rather than asthma. Choice C is incorrect as crackles are not a typical finding in asthma. Choice D is incorrect as orthopnea is not a common clinical manifestation of asthma.

5. The parents of a newborn male with hypospadias want their child circumcised. The best response by the nurse is to inform them that

• A. Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair
• B. This procedure is contraindicated because of the permanent defect
• C. There is no medical indication for performing a circumcision on any child
• D. The procedure should be performed as soon as the infant is stable

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Circumcision is delayed so the foreskin can be used for the surgical repair. Even if mild hypospadias is suspected, circumcision is not done to save the foreskin for surgical repair if needed. Choice B is incorrect because circumcision is not contraindicated due to a permanent defect; it is delayed for potential surgical needs. Choice C is incorrect as there are situations where a circumcision may be indicated for medical or cultural reasons. Choice D is incorrect because circumcision for hypospadias-related repair is not done immediately but rather delayed to preserve the foreskin for potential reconstructive surgery.

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