Nursing Elites

1. A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?

• A. Begin drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis
• B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
• C. Initiate standard precautions
• D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.

2. A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Abdominal distention
• B. A bruit near the epigastric area
• C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
• D. Blood pressure of 160/90

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.

3. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
• C. Brown ("tea-colored"?) urine.
• D. Generalized edema.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Generalized edema.' Acute glomerulonephritis typically presents with periorbital edema, not generalized edema. Findings in acute glomerulonephritis include dark, smoky, or tea-colored urine (hematuria) due to red blood cells in the urine, elevated blood pressure, and proteinuria. The urine specific gravity may be high due to decreased urine output, but a urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours is extremely low and suggestive of renal impairment. Generalized edema is more commonly associated with nephrotic syndrome, where there is significant proteinuria leading to hypoalbuminemia and subsequent fluid retention in tissues. In acute glomerulonephritis, the edema is usually limited to the face and lower extremities, not generalized.

4. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client post right cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?

• A. Decrease in level of consciousness
• B. Loss of bladder control
• C. Altered sensation to stimuli
• D. Emotional lability

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in the level of consciousness is a critical finding that would warrant immediate attention in a client post right cerebrovascular accident. This change may indicate an increase in intracranial pressure, leading to inadequate oxygenation of the brain. It could also reveal the presence of a transient ischemic attack, which may signal an impending thrombotic cerebrovascular accident. Loss of bladder control (choice B) can be managed and monitored but does not indicate an immediate threat to the client's life. Altered sensation to stimuli (choice C) can be a concerning finding but may not require immediate attention unless it affects the client's safety. Emotional lability (choice D) may be distressing for the client but does not pose an immediate risk to their health compared to a decrease in the level of consciousness.

5. A 30-year-old woman is experiencing anaphylaxis from a bee sting. Emergency personnel have been called. The nurse notes the woman is breathing but short of breath. Which of the following interventions should the nurse do first?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Ask the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit
• D. Stay with the woman until help comes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a patient is experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to act swiftly. Asking the woman if she carries an emergency medical kit is the most appropriate initial intervention. Many individuals with a history of anaphylaxis carry epinephrine auto-injectors, such as epi-pens, which can be life-saving in such situations. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is not indicated as the patient is breathing but short of breath, and CPR is not the first-line intervention for anaphylaxis. Checking for a pulse, though important, is not the initial priority in managing anaphylaxis. Staying with the woman until help arrives is essential for providing support and monitoring her condition, but confirming the availability of an emergency medical kit takes precedence to promptly address the anaphylactic reaction.

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