NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. A patient presents with vesicles covering the upper torso. Which of the following situations could cause this condition?
- A. Knife fight
- B. Auto accident
- C. Sunburn
- D. Fungal infection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vesicles are fluid-filled blisters. In the context of the upper torso, the presentation of vesicles suggests a second-degree sunburn. Sunburn can cause blistering, leading to the formation of vesicles. Choice A, 'Knife fight,' does not align with the presentation of vesicles on the upper torso due to trauma. Choice B, 'Auto accident,' is more likely to cause abrasions or bruises rather than vesicles. Choice D, 'Fungal infection,' typically presents with other symptoms such as redness, itching, or scaling, but not vesicles on the upper torso.
2. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?
- A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
- B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
- C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
- D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.
3. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
- A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
- B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
- C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
- D. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.
4. To prepare a 56-year-old male patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should?
- A. place the patient on NPO status.
- B. assist the patient to lie flat in bed.
- C. ask the patient to empty the bladder.
- D. position the patient on the right side.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To prepare a patient with ascites for paracentesis, the nurse should ask the patient to empty the bladder. This is important to decrease the risk of bladder perforation during the procedure. The patient should be positioned in Fowler's position to facilitate the procedure, not lie flat in bed, which can compromise breathing. Placing the patient on NPO status is unnecessary as sedation is not typically required for paracentesis. Positioning the patient on the right side is not a standard preparatory measure for paracentesis.
5. Your patient has shown the following signs and symptoms: Feeling very thirsty, large amount of water intake, dryness of the mouth, and urinary frequency. What physical disorder does this patient most likely have?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Angina
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient is exhibiting classic signs of diabetes, such as polydipsia (feeling very thirsty), polyuria (large amount of water intake and urinary frequency), and xerostomia (dryness of the mouth). These symptoms are indicative of high blood glucose levels, which are characteristic of diabetes. Other common signs of diabetes include poor vision, unexplained weight loss, peripheral neuropathy (tingling in the feet and hands), and fatigue. Angina is chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient. Hypertension is high blood pressure, which typically does not present with these specific symptoms related to diabetes. Hypotension is low blood pressure and is not consistent with the signs and symptoms presented by the patient, pointing more towards diabetes as the likely diagnosis.
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