Nursing Elites

1. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?

• A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
• B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
• C. Temperature 100.8?F (38.2?C)
• D. No bowel movement for 4 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8�F (38.2�C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.

2. Which of the following factors may alter the level of consciousness in a patient?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Electrolytes
• C. Infection
• D. All of the above may cause altered level of consciousness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Various factors can lead to altered levels of consciousness in a patient. Alcohol consumption can depress the central nervous system and cause changes in consciousness. Electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia or hypernatremia, can disrupt brain function and affect consciousness. Infections, especially those affecting the brain like encephalitis, can also lead to alterations in consciousness. Therefore, all of the choices provided - Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection - can potentially cause changes in the level of consciousness. Remember the acronym AEIOU-TIPPS to recall common causes of decreased level of consciousness, including Alcohol, Electrolytes, and Infection, among others.

3. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, what level of pressure should the nurse apply?

• A. 70-80 mmHg
• B. 100-120 mmHg
• C. 150-170 mmHg
• D. 200 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When suctioning the endotracheal tube of an adult client, the nurse should set the suction apparatus at a level no higher than 150 mmHg, with a preferable level between 100 and 120 mmHg. Suction pressure that is too high can contribute to the client's hypoxia. Alternatively, too low suction pressure may not clear adequate amounts of secretions. Choice A (70-80 mmHg) is too low and may not effectively clear secretions. Choices C (150-170 mmHg) and D (200 mmHg) are too high and can potentially harm the client by causing hypoxia or damaging the airway.

4. The nurse prepares a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion for a thoracentesis. How should the nurse position the patient?

• A. Supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees
• B. In a high-Fowler's position with the left arm extended
• C. On the right side with the left arm extended above the head
• D. Sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct position for a patient with a left-sided pleural effusion undergoing thoracentesis is sitting upright with the arms supported on an overbed table. This position helps increase lung expansion, allows fluid to collect at the lung bases, and expands the intercostal space making access to the pleural space easier. Placing the patient supine, in a high-Fowler's position, or on the right side with the left arm extended above the head could increase the work of breathing for the patient and complicate the thoracentesis procedure for the healthcare provider.

5. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?

• A. Slow, deep respirations
• B. Stridor
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Air hunger

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with pulmonary edema following a myocardial infarction, the nurse should expect symptoms such as air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Air hunger refers to the feeling of needing to breathe more deeply or more often. Other symptoms of pulmonary edema can include coughing up blood or bloody froth, orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening with shortness of breath). Slow, deep respirations (Choice A) are not typical in pulmonary edema; these patients often exhibit rapid, shallow breathing due to the difficulty in oxygen exchange. Stridor (Choice B) is a high-pitched breathing sound often associated with upper airway obstruction, not typically seen in pulmonary edema. Bradycardia (Choice C), a slow heart rate, is not a characteristic symptom of pulmonary edema, which is more likely to be associated with tachycardia due to the body's compensatory response to hypoxia and increased workload on the heart.

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