Nursing Elites

1. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?

• A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
• B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
• C. Temperature 100.8?F (38.2?C)
• D. No bowel movement for 4 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8�F (38.2�C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.

2. A client has just been diagnosed with active tuberculosis. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform to prevent transmission to others?

• A. Begin drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis
• B. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
• C. Initiate standard precautions
• D. Place the client in a negative-pressure room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client diagnosed with active tuberculosis should be placed in isolation in a negative-pressure room to prevent transmission of infection to others. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room ensures that air is exhausted to the outside and received from surrounding areas, preventing tuberculin particles from traveling through the ventilation system and infecting others. Initiating standard precautions, as mentioned in choice C, is essential for infection control but is not specific to preventing transmission in the case of tuberculosis. Beginning drug therapy within 72 hours of diagnosis, as in choice A, is crucial for the treatment of tuberculosis but does not directly address preventing transmission. Placing the client in a positive-pressure room, as in choice B, is incorrect as positive-pressure rooms are used for clients with compromised immune systems to prevent outside pathogens from entering the room, which is not suitable for a client with active tuberculosis.

3. Which finding would necessitate an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy?

• A. Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
• B. Positive urine pregnancy test
• C. Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
• D. Complaints of nausea and anorexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive urine pregnancy test would require an immediate change in the therapeutic plan for a patient with grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy due to the teratogenic effects of ribavirin. Ribavirin needs to be discontinued immediately to prevent harm to the fetus. The other options, weight loss, hemoglobin level, and complaints of nausea and anorexia, are common adverse effects of the prescribed regimen and may necessitate interventions such as patient education or supportive care, but they would not mandate an immediate cessation of therapy as in the case of a positive pregnancy test.

4. What is the most common complication of chest wall injury?

• A. Hemothorax
• B. Atelectasis
• C. Pneumonia
• D. Pneumothorax

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pneumonia is the most common complication of chest wall injury. Chest wall trauma can lead to impaired lung function, making patients more susceptible to pneumonia due to reduced ability to clear secretions and impaired breathing. While hemothorax and pneumothorax are potential complications of chest wall injury, pneumonia is more commonly encountered. Atelectasis, although a common pulmonary complication, is not typically the most common complication seen in chest wall injuries.

5. While taking the health history of a 70-year-old patient being treated for a Duodenal Ulcer, the nurse learns that the patient is complaining of epigastric pain. What assessment finding would the nurse expect to note?

• A. Melena
• B. Nausea
• C. Hernia
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Melena is the passage of black, tarry stools due to the presence of blood in the gastrointestinal tract, usually originating from the upper digestive system. In the context of a Duodenal Ulcer, melena can occur as a result of bleeding in the duodenum or the upper part of the small intestine. This finding is significant as it indicates potential gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a common complication of duodenal ulcers. Nausea (Choice B) is a nonspecific symptom that may be present with various gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to duodenal ulcers. Hernia (Choice C) involves the protrusion of an organ through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it and is not directly related to the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Hyperthermia (Choice D), which refers to an elevated body temperature, is not typically associated with duodenal ulcers unless there are severe complications present.

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