which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Exam Questions

1. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider about a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago?

A. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa
B. Crackles at bilateral lung bases
C. Temperature 100.8?F (38.2?C)
D. No bowel movement for 4 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the patient's temperature of 100.8�F (38.2�C). In a patient who received a liver transplant 1 week ago, a fever is a significant finding that should be promptly communicated to the health care provider. Post-transplant patients are at high risk of infections, and fever can often be the initial indicator of an underlying infectious process. The other findings listed in choices A, B, and D are important and should be addressed, but they do not take precedence over a potential infection post-liver transplant. Dry palpebral and oral mucosa may indicate dehydration, crackles at bilateral lung bases may suggest fluid overload or infection, and no bowel movement for 4 days could indicate a bowel obstruction or ileus. However, in the context of a recent liver transplant, an elevated temperature is the most concerning and requires immediate attention to rule out infection.

2. When assessing a patient who has just arrived after an automobile accident, the emergency department nurse notes tachycardia and absent breath sounds over the right lung. For which intervention will the nurse prepare the patient?

A. Emergency pericardiocentesis
B. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape
C. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator
D. Insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's history and absent breath sounds suggest a right-sided pneumothorax or hemothorax, which will require treatment with a chest tube and drainage. Emergency pericardiocentesis is not indicated as the patient's symptoms are not suggestive of cardiac tamponade. Stabilization of the chest wall with tape would not address the underlying issue of a potential pneumothorax or hemothorax. Administration of an inhaled bronchodilator is not appropriate in this scenario as the patient is not exhibiting signs of asthma or bronchoconstriction. Therefore, the correct intervention for this patient is the insertion of a chest tube with a chest drainage system to address the potential pneumothorax or hemothorax.

3. A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider?

A. Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg
B. Heart rate 76 bpm
C. Urine output 50 ml/hour
D. Respiratory rate 16 bpm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg.' Both digoxin and metoprolol decrease the heart rate. Metoprolol specifically affects blood pressure. Therefore, the heart rate and blood pressure need to be within normal range (HR 60-100 bpm; systolic BP above 100 mm Hg) to safely administer both medications. A blood pressure of 94/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which could be exacerbated by metoprolol, necessitating immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks related to the administration of these medications.

4. Which of the following diseases is caused by the Bordetella pertussis bacterium?

A. German Measles
B. RSV
C. Meningitis
D. Whooping Cough

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bordetella pertussis is the bacterium responsible for causing Whooping Cough, also known as pertussis. Meningitis can be caused by various bacteria, but not specifically by Bordetella pertussis. German Measles, also known as Rubella, and RSV (Respiratory Syncytial Virus) are viral infections and are not caused by the Bordetella pertussis bacterium. Therefore, the correct answer is Whooping Cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis.

5. A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is classified as:

A. Normotensive
B. Prehypertension
C. Stage I hypertension
D. Stage II hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg falls within the range of 140-159 mm Hg, which is classified as Stage I hypertension. Normotensive individuals have a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg, making choice A incorrect. Prehypertension is characterized by a systolic blood pressure ranging from 120-139 mm Hg, excluding choice B. Stage II hypertension is diagnosed when the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mm Hg, making choice D incorrect. Therefore, the correct classification for a systolic blood pressure of 145 mm Hg is Stage I hypertension.