NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued?
- A. Narrowed QRS complex
- B. Shortened "PR"? interval
- C. Tall peaked "T"? waves
- D. Prominent "U"? waves
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A tall peaked T wave is a characteristic EKG pattern associated with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia refers to high levels of potassium in the blood, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Tall peaked T waves are a red flag for potential cardiac issues and can indicate the need to discontinue potassium infusions. The other choices, such as narrowed QRS complex, shortened "PR"? interval, and prominent "U"? waves, are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Therefore, recognizing tall peaked T waves is crucial for the nurse to take prompt action in managing the client's condition.
2. A 23-year-old has been admitted with acute liver failure. Which assessment data are most important for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider?
- A. Asterixis and lethargy
- B. Jaundiced sclera and skin
- C. Elevated total bilirubin level
- D. Liver 3 cm below costal margin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical assessment data for the nurse to communicate to the healthcare provider in a patient with acute liver failure are asterixis and lethargy. These findings are indicative of grade 2 hepatic encephalopathy, which signals a rapid deterioration in the patient's condition, necessitating early transfer to a transplant center. Jaundiced sclera and skin, elevated total bilirubin level, and a liver 3 cm below the costal margin are all typical findings in hepatic failure but do not indicate an immediate need for a change in the therapeutic plan. Therefore, while these findings are relevant and should be reported, they are not as urgent as asterixis and lethargy in a patient with acute liver failure.
3. The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
- A. maintaining normal respiratory function.
- B. expressing satisfaction with pain control.
- C. developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
- D. having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.
4. When caring for a patient with Parkinson's Disease, which of the following practices would not be included in the care plan?
- A. Decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain
- B. Allow the patient extra time to respond to questions and perform ADLs
- C. Use thickened liquids and a soft diet
- D. Encourage the patient to hold the spoon when eating
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the calorie content of daily meals to avoid weight gain. Patients with Parkinson's Disease often experience dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and muscle rigidity, which can lead to weight loss. Therefore, increasing calorie intake is essential to meet their nutritional needs. Choice A is incorrect because reducing calories can worsen malnutrition in these patients. Choices B, C, and D are appropriate interventions for patients with Parkinson's Disease. Allowing extra time for tasks, using thickened liquids and a soft diet for swallowing difficulties, and encouraging self-feeding promote independence and safety in eating.
5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving Haloperidol (Haldol) 5 mg t.i.d.. The client's family is alarmed and calls the clinic when 'his eyes rolled upward.' The nurse recognizes this as what type of side effect?
- A. Oculogyric crisis
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Nystagmus
- D. Dysphagia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Oculogyric crisis is a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like Haloperidol (Haldol) and is characterized by involuntary upward deviation of the eyes. This condition can be distressing to both the client and their family. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different side effect characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements, especially of the face and tongue, which can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Nystagmus (Choice C) is an involuntary eye movement that is rhythmic and can occur for various reasons but is not specific to Haloperidol use. Dysphagia (Choice D) refers to difficulty swallowing and is not typically associated with the use of Haloperidol.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access