Nursing Elites

1. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?

• A. Detached Retina
• B. Fovea Centralis
• C. Presbyopia
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to palpate and percuss a patient's abdomen as part of the assessment process. Which of these findings would cause the healthcare professional to immediately discontinue this part of the assessment?

• A. The patient states, 'That sounds like it might hurt me.'
• B. There is a pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen.
• C. The patient has black, tarry stools and anemia.
• D. The patient has had an endoscopic procedure two days prior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A pulsating mass on the upper middle abdomen is indicative of a life-threatening aortic aneurysm. Palpating or percussing such an area can potentially cause the aneurysm to rupture, leading to severe internal bleeding and endangering the patient's life. Therefore, the healthcare professional should immediately discontinue the assessment to prevent any harm.\nChoice A is incorrect because the patient expressing concerns about the procedure does not necessarily indicate a life-threatening condition. Choice C describes symptoms that should be further investigated but do not pose an immediate threat during abdominal assessment. Choice D, a prior endoscopic procedure, is not a contraindication for palpation or percussion of the abdomen unless there are specific complications or conditions related to the procedure that would require caution.

3. How does shock typically progress?

• A. Compensated to hypotensive shock in hours and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in minutes
• B. Compensated to hypotensive shock in minutes and hypotensive shock to cardiac arrest in hours
• C. Hypotensive to compensated shock in hours and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in minutes
• D. Hypotensive to compensated shock in minutes and compensated shock to cardiac arrest in hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shock typically progresses from a compensated state to hypotensive shock over a period of hours. In the compensated phase, the body is trying to maintain perfusion. It is crucial to identify and intervene during this phase to prevent progression to hypotensive shock, where blood pressure drops significantly. If not promptly managed, hypotensive shock can rapidly deteriorate into cardiac arrest in minutes due to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the typical progression of shock stages as seen in clinical practice. Understanding the stages of shock and their timeframes is crucial for early recognition and appropriate intervention to prevent further deterioration.

4. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.

5. A nurse admits a 3-week-old infant to the special care nursery with a diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. As the nurse reviews the birth history, which data would be most consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Gestational age assessment suggested growth retardation
• B. Meconium was cleared from the airway at delivery
• C. Phototherapy was used to treat Rh incompatibility
• D. The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks.' Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a condition primarily caused by therapies like positive-pressure ventilation used in the treatment of lung disease. This leads to lung damage and subsequent respiratory problems. Choices A, B, and C are not consistent with the diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Gestational age assessment suggesting growth retardation is more indicative of intrauterine growth restriction, clearing meconium from the airway at delivery is related to potential respiratory issues at birth, and phototherapy for Rh incompatibility is unrelated to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

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