NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?
- A. Detached Retina
- B. Fovea Centralis
- C. Presbyopia
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.
2. Which of the following statements made by a client during an individual therapy session would the nurse most identify as reflecting schizoaffective disorder?
- A. ''I just want to stab myself with this pen.''
- B. ''What's the point in life anyways?''
- C. ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.''
- D. ''I hear voices every day and sometimes see old friends that don't exist.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, ''My thoughts are racing because of the conspiracies against me.'' Schizoaffective disorder combines the symptoms of bipolar disorder (mania and depression) with those of schizophrenia (delusions and disturbed thought processes). Racing thoughts are a characteristic symptom of a manic episode, while beliefs in conspiracies indicate paranoia, which are common in schizoaffective disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically align with the symptoms of schizoaffective disorder. Choice A suggests self-harm, which may be seen in various mental health conditions; choice B reflects existential questioning or depression; and choice D describes hallucinations, which are more characteristic of schizophrenia rather than schizoaffective disorder.
3. A nurse and client are discussing the client's progress toward understanding his behavior under stress. This is typical of which phase in the therapeutic relationship?
- A. Pre-interaction
- B. Orientation
- C. Working
- D. Termination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is the working phase. During this phase, the nurse and client actively work together to explore alternative behaviors and techniques. Discussions in this phase focus on understanding the underlying meaning behind the behavior and implementing strategies for change. Pre-interaction (choice A) refers to the phase before the nurse and client first meet and establish a relationship. The orientation phase (choice B) involves introductions, setting goals, and establishing boundaries. Termination (choice D) is the phase where the therapeutic relationship concludes, and closure is achieved.
4. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.4 F (38.6 C), a nonproductive cough, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. The patient complains of weakness, fatigue, and needs assistance to get out of bed. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign as the highest priority?
- A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
- B. Impaired transfer ability related to weakness
- C. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions
- D. Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Impaired gas exchange related to respiratory congestion.' While all the nursing diagnoses are relevant to the patient's condition, the priority should be given to impaired gas exchange due to the patient's low oxygen saturation level of 88%. This indicates a significant risk of hypoxia for all body tissues unless the gas exchange is improved. Addressing impaired gas exchange is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further complications. Hyperthermia, impaired transfer ability, and ineffective airway clearance are important concerns but addressing gas exchange takes precedence in this scenario.
5. A 23-year-old woman is admitted to the infusion clinic after a Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation. The physician orders methylprednisolone infusions (Solu-Medrol). The nurse would expect which of the following outcomes after administration of this medication?
- A. A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements
- B. A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques
- C. A decrease in the length of the exacerbation
- D. A stabilization of mood and sleep
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylprednisolone infusion is the first-line treatment during an acute exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis. It is used to decrease the length and severity of a relapse by reducing inflammation in the central nervous system. Choice A, 'A decrease in muscle spasticity and involuntary movements,' is incorrect because methylprednisolone primarily targets inflammation and does not directly address muscle spasticity. Choice B, 'A slowed progression of Multiple Sclerosis-related plaques,' is incorrect as methylprednisolone is not used to slow the progression of the disease but rather to manage acute exacerbations. Choice D, 'A stabilization of mood and sleep,' is not an expected outcome of methylprednisolone administration for Multiple Sclerosis exacerbation as it primarily targets the inflammatory process associated with the relapse.
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