NCLEX-RN
Exam Cram NCLEX RN Practice Questions
1. The nurse has been assigned to care for a neonate just delivered who has gastroschisis. Which concern should the nurse address in the client's plan of care?
- A. Infection.
- B. Poor body image.
- C. Decreased urinary elimination.
- D. Cracking oral mucous membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a neonate with gastroschisis, the bowel herniates through a defect in the abdominal wall without a covering membrane, which puts the neonate at high risk of infection. Immediate surgical repair is necessary due to the vulnerability of the exposed bowel to infection. Therefore, the most critical concern for the nurse to address in the plan of care of a neonate with gastroschisis is preventing infection. Poor body image is not a priority in neonatal care as neonates do not have body image concerns. Decreased urinary elimination is not typically a direct consequence of gastroschisis as it primarily affects the gastrointestinal system, not the genitourinary system. Cracking oral mucous membranes are not relevant to gastroschisis as it involves the lower gastrointestinal system, not the oral cavity.
2. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?
- A. Double the birth weight
- B. Triple the birth weight
- C. Gain 6 ounces each week
- D. Add 2 pounds each month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age as part of normal growth and development. This doubling of weight is a common milestone used by healthcare providers to assess a baby's growth progress. Tripling the birth weight or adding 2 pounds each month would result in excessive weight gain, which is not typical or healthy for an infant. Similarly, gaining 6 ounces each week would also lead to rapid and abnormal weight gain, making it an incorrect choice.
3. A child is diagnosed with Hirschsprung's disease. The nurse is teaching the parents about the cause of the disease. Which statement, if made by the parent, supports that teaching was successful?
- A. The absence of special cells in the rectum caused the disease.
- B. Incomplete digestion of the protein part of wheat, barley, rye, and oats is not the cause of the disease.
- C. The disease does not occur due to increased bowel motility leading to spasm and pain.
- D. The disease is not caused by the inability to tolerate sugar found in dairy products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease, also known as congenital aganglionosis or megacolon, is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in the rectum and, sometimes, extending into the colon. Choice A correctly explains the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice B is incorrect as it describes celiac disease, which is related to gluten intolerance. Choice C is inaccurate as it describes symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome, not the cause of Hirschsprung's disease. Choice D is wrong as it pertains to lactose intolerance, not Hirschsprung's disease.
4. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?
- A. Blood sugar check
- B. CT scan
- C. Blood cultures
- D. Arterial blood gases
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.
5. A patient is being treated in the Neurology Unit for Meningitis. Which of these is a priority assessment for the nurse to make?
- A. Assess the patient for nuchal rigidity
- B. Determine the patient's past exposure to infectious organisms
- C. Check the patient's WBC lab values
- D. Monitor for increased lethargy and drowsiness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring for increased lethargy and drowsiness is crucial as these symptoms indicate a decreased level of consciousness, which is the cardinal sign of increased Intracranial Pressure (ICP). Elevated ICP can lead to serious complications and requires immediate intervention. Assessing for nuchal rigidity is important in suspected cases of meningitis but monitoring lethargy and drowsiness takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ICP. Determining past exposure to infectious organisms and checking WBC lab values are important for diagnosing and treating meningitis but do not directly address the immediate concern of increased ICP.
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