Nursing Elites

1. A child presents to the emergency department with colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant. What disorder is suspected based on these symptoms?

• A. Peritonitis
• B. Appendicitis
• C. Intussusception
• D. Hirschsprung's disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The child's presentation of colicky abdominal pain in the lower right quadrant is classic for appendicitis. Appendicitis typically presents with localized pain that starts near the umbilicus and then shifts to the right lower quadrant. Peritonitis, on the other hand, is characterized by diffuse abdominal pain, tenderness, and guarding, usually resulting from organ perforation or intestinal obstruction. Intussusception is associated with acute, severe abdominal pain and currant jelly-like stools due to intestinal telescoping. Hirschsprung's disease, which lacks ganglion cells in the colon, manifests with symptoms like constipation, abdominal distension, and foul-smelling, ribbon-like stools.

2. The nursing care plan for a toddler diagnosed with Kawasaki Disease (mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome) should be based on the high risk for development of which problem?

• A. Chronic vessel plaque formation
• B. Pulmonary embolism
• C. Occlusions at the vessel bifurcations
• D. Coronary artery aneurysms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is chronic vessel plaque formation. Kawasaki Disease affects small and medium-sized blood vessels, leading to progressive inflammation and potential damage to the walls of medium-sized muscular arteries, which can result in coronary artery aneurysms. While other complications such as pulmonary embolism and occlusions at vessel bifurcations can occur in different conditions, for Kawasaki Disease, the primary concern is the development of chronic vessel plaque formation.

3. A nurse frequently treats patients in the 72-hour period after a stroke has occurred. The nurse would be most concerned about which of these assessment findings?

• A. INR is 3 seconds long
• B. Heart rate is 110 beats per minute
• C. Intracranial Pressure is 22 mmHg
• D. Blood pressure is 140/80

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse would be most concerned about the assessment finding of an Intracranial Pressure (ICP) reading of 22 mmHg in a patient 72 hours post-stroke. Elevated ICP can indicate increased risk of edema and further brain damage. A target ICP should ideally be maintained at less than or equal to 15-20 mmHg. While the other options may also be important to monitor, an elevated ICP poses a more immediate threat to the patient's neurological status and requires prompt attention.

4. The nurse admits a patient who has a diagnosis of an acute asthma attack. Which statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use?

• A. I have not had any acute asthma attacks during the last year.
• B. I became short of breath an hour before coming to the hospital.
• C. I've been taking Tylenol 650 mg every 6 hours for chest-wall pain.
• D. I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I've been using my albuterol inhaler more frequently over the last 4 days.' This statement indicates that the patient may need teaching regarding medication use because an increased need for a rapid-acting bronchodilator suggests an exacerbation of asthma. The patient should be educated on recognizing worsening symptoms and the appropriate actions to take. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to asthma exacerbation or the need for medication teaching, making them incorrect. Choice A reflects a lack of recent acute asthma attacks, while choice B describes shortness of breath unrelated to medication use. Choice C mentions Tylenol use for chest-wall pain, which is not indicative of asthma exacerbation or medication teaching needs.

5. What action will the nurse plan to take for a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention caused by a flaccid bladder?

• A. Decrease the patient's evening fluid intake.
• B. Teach the patient how to use the Cred method.
• C. Suggest the use of adult incontinence briefs for nighttime only.
• D. Assist the patient to the commode every 2 hours during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 40-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis experiencing urinary retention due to a flaccid bladder, teaching the Cred method is the appropriate action. The Cred method involves applying manual pressure over the bladder to aid in bladder emptying. Decreasing fluid intake is not the correct approach as it will not address the underlying issue of bladder emptying and may lead to dehydration and urinary tract infections. Using adult incontinence briefs only addresses the symptom of incontinence without addressing the bladder emptying problem. Assisting the patient to the commode every 2 hours does not actively address the issue of improving bladder emptying as effectively as teaching the Cred method.

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