Nursing Elites

1. A patient asks the nurse whether he is a good candidate to use a CPAP machine. The nurse reviews the client's history. Which condition would contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine?

• A. The patient is in the late stage of dementia.
• B. The patient has a history of bronchitis.
• C. The patient has had suicidal gestures/attempts in the past.
• D. The patient is on beta-blockers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that the patient is in the late stage of dementia. In late-stage dementia, individuals may have an inability to follow commands and understand instructions independently, which are essential for proper installation and use of a CPAP machine. This makes using a CPAP machine challenging and potentially ineffective for patients in this condition. Choice B, having a history of bronchitis, does not contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. In fact, CPAP therapy can be beneficial for patients with respiratory conditions like bronchitis. Choice C, a history of suicidal gestures/attempts, while concerning for the patient's mental health, does not directly contraindicate the use of a CPAP machine. Choice D, being on beta-blockers, is not a contraindication for CPAP machine use. Beta-blockers are commonly used medications for various conditions and do not interfere with the use of a CPAP machine.

2. The nurse completes discharge teaching for a patient who has had a lung transplant. The nurse evaluates that the teaching has been effective if the patient makes which statement?

• A. I will make an appointment to see the doctor every year.
• B. I will stop taking the prednisone if I experience a dry cough.
• C. I will not worry if I feel a little short of breath with exercise.
• D. I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is, 'I will call the health care provider right away if I develop a fever.' It is crucial for patients who have undergone a lung transplant to be vigilant about any signs of infection or rejection. A low-grade fever can be an early indicator of such complications, requiring immediate medical attention. While annual follow-up visits are necessary, they are not sufficient for monitoring acute changes in health post-transplant. Stopping prednisone abruptly can lead to rejection and should only be done under healthcare provider guidance. Feeling short of breath with exercise should be reported as it can indicate potential issues. Recognizing and addressing symptoms promptly is key to successful post-transplant care, and in this case, calling the healthcare provider immediately for a fever is the most appropriate action.

3. Renal failure is broadly divided into specific categories. Which type is the type II diabetic patient most likely to experience secondary to diabetes?

• A. Acute renal failure (ARF)
• B. Intermittent renal failure (IRF)
• C. Chronic renal failure (CRF)
• D. Reversible renal failure (RRF)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetic nephropathy is a common complication in type II diabetic patients, leading to chronic renal failure (CRF). Chronic renal failure (CRF) and acute renal failure (ARF) are the two main categories of renal failure. CRF can result from various conditions including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, polycystic kidney disease, connective tissue disorders, and amyloidosis. Unlike acute renal failure, chronic renal failure is irreversible. Timely treatment of ARF can often lead to reversibility, but CRF may require renal replacement therapy (RRT) or kidney transplant. Therefore, the correct answer is chronic renal failure (CRF). Intermittent renal failure (IRF) and reversible renal failure (RRF) are not recognized medical terms for distinct types of renal failure, making choices B and D incorrect.

4. The healthcare professional in the Emergency Room is treating a patient suspected to have a Peptic Ulcer. On assessing lab results, the healthcare professional finds that the patient's blood pressure is 95/60, pulse is 110 beats per minute, and the patient reports epigastric pain. What is the PRIORITY intervention?

• A. Start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm
• B. Ask the patient for a stool sample
• C. Prepare to insert an NG Tube
• D. Administer intramuscular morphine sulfate as ordered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention in this scenario is to start a large-bore IV in the patient's arm. The patient's low blood pressure (95/60) and elevated pulse rate (110 beats per minute) indicate a potential hemorrhage, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. Starting a large-bore IV will allow for rapid administration of fluids to stabilize the patient's condition. Asking for a stool sample, preparing to insert an NG tube, or administering morphine sulfate should not take precedence over addressing the hemodynamic instability and potential hemorrhage observed in the patient. These actions may be considered later in the patient's care, but the primary focus should be on addressing the critical issue of fluid replacement and stabilization.

5. The clinic nurse is assessing jaundice in a child with hepatitis. Which anatomical area would provide the best data regarding the presence of jaundice?

• A. The nail beds.
• B. The skin in the sacral area.
• C. The skin in the abdominal area.
• D. The membranes in the ear canal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jaundice, if present, can be best assessed in areas such as the sclera, nail beds, and mucous membranes due to the yellowing of these tissues. The nail beds specifically provide a good indication of jaundice. The skin in the sacral area (Option B) is not typically the best area for assessing jaundice as it is less visible and not as reliable as the nail beds. The skin in the abdominal area (Option C) may show generalized jaundice, but the nail beds are more specific for detecting early signs. Lastly, assessing the membranes in the ear canal (Option D) is not a standard method for evaluating jaundice; the sclera and nail beds are more commonly used for this purpose.

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