Nursing Elites

1. A patient with bacterial pneumonia has rhonchi and thick sputum. What is the nurse's most appropriate action to promote airway clearance?

• A. Assist the patient to splint the chest when coughing.
• B. Teach the patient about the need for fluid intake.
• C. Encourage the patient to wear the nasal oxygen cannula.
• D. Instruct the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the patient to splint the chest when coughing is the most appropriate action to promote airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia, rhonchi, and thick sputum. Splinting the chest helps reduce pain during coughing and increases the effectiveness of clearing secretions. Teaching the patient about the need for fluid intake is important as it helps liquefy secretions, aiding in easier clearance. Encouraging the patient to wear a nasal oxygen cannula may improve gas exchange but does not directly promote airway clearance. Instructing the patient on the pursed lip breathing technique is beneficial for improving gas exchange in patients with COPD but does not directly aid in airway clearance in a patient with bacterial pneumonia and thick sputum.

2. A patient's chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

• A. Decreased HR
• B. Paresthesias
• C. Muscle weakness of the extremities
• D. Migraines

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Migraines.' Migraines are not a symptom typically associated with hyperkalemia. In acute hyperkalemia, one would not expect to see migraines. Symptoms of hyperkalemia often include muscle weakness, paresthesias, and cardiac manifestations such as bradycardia or even cardiac arrest. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are more commonly associated with acute hyperkalemia compared to migraines, making it the correct choice.

3. A patient has a history of photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs is associated with photosensitive reactions? Select one that doesn't apply

• A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
• B. Sulfonamide
• C. Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
• D. Nitro-Dur patch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitro-Dur patch is not associated with photosensitive reactions. It is used to prevent chest pain or angina, and common side effects include headache, lightheadedness, nausea, and flushing. Choices A, B, and C are known to cause photosensitive reactions. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro), Sulfonamides, and Norfloxacin (Noroxin) are drugs that are commonly associated with photosensitivity reactions. Patients taking these medications should be advised to avoid direct sunlight and use sun protection to prevent skin reactions.

4. A client is in her third month of her first pregnancy. During the interview, she tells the nurse that she has several sex partners and is unsure of the identity of the baby's father. Which of the following nursing interventions is a priority?

• A. Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening
• B. Perform tests for sexually transmitted diseases
• C. Discuss her high risk for cervical cancer
• D. Refer the client to a family planning clinic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Counsel the woman to consent to HIV screening. The client's behavior places her at high risk for HIV. Testing is the first step in identifying and managing the risk of HIV infection. Early detection allows for timely interventions and better outcomes. While performing tests for sexually transmitted diseases (choice B) is important, addressing the immediate and potentially life-threatening risk of HIV takes precedence. Discussing the risk for cervical cancer (choice C) is not the priority at this time as HIV screening is more urgent. Referring the client to a family planning clinic (choice D) is not the immediate priority given the client's current high-risk behavior and the need to address the immediate threat of HIV infection.

5. What would be the most appropriate follow-up by the home care nurse for a 57-year-old male client with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a hematocrit of 32%?

• A. Ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools
• B. Tell the client to call 911 and go to the emergency department immediately
• C. Schedule a repeat Hemoglobin and Hematocrit in 1 month
• D. Tell the client to schedule an appointment with a hematologist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client if he has noticed any bleeding or dark stools. Normal hemoglobin for males is 13.0 - 18 g/dl, and normal hematocrit for males is 42 - 52%. The values of hemoglobin and hematocrit provided for the client are below normal, indicating mild anemia. The first step for the nurse is to inquire about any signs of bleeding or changes in stools that could suggest bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract. This helps in assessing the possible cause of the low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The other options are not appropriate as calling 911 and going to the emergency department immediately is not warranted for mild anemia, scheduling a repeat test in 1 month delays addressing the current concern, and referring the client to a hematologist may be premature without investigating the cause of the low levels first.

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