NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A patient asks a nurse, "My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain the highest concentration of folic acid?'
- A. Green vegetables and liver
- B. Yellow vegetables and red meat
- C. Carrots
- D. Milk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Green vegetables and liver are rich sources of folic acid. Green vegetables like spinach, asparagus, and broccoli are high in folic acid content. Liver, especially from chicken or beef, is also a good source of folic acid. Yellow vegetables and red meat (choice B) do not contain as high a concentration of folic acid as green vegetables and liver. Carrots (choice C) are nutritious but do not have the highest concentration of folic acid. Milk (choice D) is not a significant source of folic acid compared to green vegetables and liver.
2. Mr. V is receiving treatment for a spinal cord injury after falling off of his deck at home. He has undergone spinal surgery and has been placed in a halo traction device. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate for a client with a spinal cord injury?
- A. Turn the client and use incentive spirometry each shift
- B. Administer stool softeners as ordered
- C. Turn the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine
- D. Change NPO status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a spinal cord injury, administering stool softeners as ordered is a crucial nursing intervention. Patients with spinal cord injuries are at higher risk of constipation due to decreased mobility. Stool softeners help prevent constipation and potential fecal impaction. Turning the client and using incentive spirometry each shift can be beneficial for respiratory function but is not the most vital intervention in this scenario. Turning the head slowly to avoid further damage to the spine is important but is not directly related to preventing constipation. Changing NPO status is not relevant to preventing constipation or managing a spinal cord injury.
3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the lab results of a patient who has presented in the Emergency Room. The lab results show that the troponin T value is at 5.3 ng/mL. Which of these interventions, if not already completed, would take priority over the others?
- A. Place the patient in a 90-degree position
- B. Assess whether the patient is taking diuretics
- C. Obtain and attach defibrillator leads
- D. Assess the patient's last ejection fraction
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the elevated Troponin T level indicates cardiac damage, possibly due to a myocardial infarction. A Troponin T value of 5.3 ng/mL is significantly elevated (normal levels are below 0.2 ng/mL), suggesting acute cardiac injury. Given the setting of an Emergency Room and the critical nature of the situation, the priority intervention should be to obtain and attach defibrillator leads. Elevated Troponin T levels can indicate a higher risk of arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, which can lead to sudden cardiac arrest. Defibrillator leads are essential for monitoring the patient's cardiac rhythm and readiness for immediate defibrillation if necessary. Placing the patient in a 90-degree position (Choice A) or assessing diuretic use (Choice B) are not immediate priorities in this critical situation. Additionally, assessing the patient's last ejection fraction (Choice D) is important but not as urgent as preparing for potential life-threatening arrhythmias requiring defibrillation.
4. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Prepare the child for an X-ray of the upper airways
- B. Examine the child's throat
- C. Collect a sputum specimen
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the child's status
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.
5. A 24-year-old female contracts hepatitis from contaminated food. During the acute (icteric) phase of the patient's illness, what would serologic testing most likely reveal?
- A. antibody to hepatitis D (anti-HDV).
- B. hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).
- C. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG).
- D. anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the oral-fecal route. During the acute phase of hepatitis A, serologic testing typically reveals anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin M (anti-HAV IgM). This antibody appears early in the course of the infection. The presence of anti-HAV IgM indicates an acute infection with hepatitis A. Choices A and B are incorrect as hepatitis D and hepatitis B antigens are not typically associated with acute hepatitis A. Choice C, anti-hepatitis A virus immunoglobulin G (anti-HAV IgG), would indicate a past infection and lifelong immunity, which is not expected during the acute phase of the illness.
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